⭐ Đáp ứng chuẩn đầu ra & yêu cầu công việc
Thi thử VSTEP Online Miễn phí (B1, B2, C1)
Luyện tập và thi thử chứng chỉ VSTEP theo Khung năng lực ngoại ngữ 6 bậc của Việt Nam. Hệ thống cung cấp các bài thi thử VSTEP đầy đủ 4 kỹ năng, bám sát cấu trúc đề thi thật của Bộ GD&ĐT. Đây là công cụ không thể thiếu để sinh viên và công chức ôn luyện, đạt mục tiêu B1, B2, C1.
Danh sách đề thi VSTEP
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 1 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 1 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 1 - Reading Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 2 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 2 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 2 - Reading Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 3 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 3 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 3 - Reading Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 4 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 4 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 4 - Reading Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 5 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 5 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 5 - Reading Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 6 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 6 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 6 - Reading Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 7 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 7 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 1 - Practice Test 7 - Reading Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 1 - Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 1 - Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 10 - Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 10 - Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 2 - Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 2 - Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 3 - Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 3 - Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 4 - Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 4 - Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 5 - Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 5 - Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 6 - Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 6 - Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 7 - Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 7 - Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 8 - Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 8 - Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 9 - Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 2 - Reading Test 9 - Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 3 - Practice Test 1 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 3 - Practice Test 1 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 3 - Practice Test 1 - Reading Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 3 - Practice Test 2 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 3 - Practice Test 2 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 3 - Practice Test 2 - Reading Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 3 - Practice Test 3 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 3 - Practice Test 3 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 3 - Practice Test 3 - Reading Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 3 - Practice Test 4 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 3 - Practice Test 4 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 3 - Practice Test 4 - Reading Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 3 - Practice Test 5 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 3 - Practice Test 5 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 3 - Practice Test 5 - Reading Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 4 - Practice Test 1 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 4 - Practice Test 1 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 4 - Practice Test 1 - Reading Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 4 - Practice Test 2 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 4 - Practice Test 2 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 4 - Practice Test 2 - Reading Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 4 - Practice Test 3 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 4 - Practice Test 3 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 4 - Practice Test 3 - Reading Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 4 - Practice Test 4 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 4 - Practice Test 4 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 4 - Practice Test 4 - Reading Part 2
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 4 - Practice Test 5 - Listening
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 4 - Practice Test 5 - Reading Part 1
Thi Thử Vstep Online Đề 4 - Practice Test 5 - Reading Part 2
A: LISTENING
Directions: This is the listening test for levels from 3 to 5 of the Vietnam's 6-level Language Proficiency Test. There are three parts to the test. You will hear each part once. For each part of the test there will be time for you to look through the questions and time for you to check your answers. Write your answers on the question paper. You will have 5 minutes at the end of the test to transfer your answers onto the answer sheet.
PART 1
There are eight questions in this part. For each question there are four options and a short recording. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You now have 45 seconds to look through the questions and the options in each question.
1. When is the man's appointment?
- Wednesday
- Thursday
- Friday
- Tuesday
2. Which is the aunt's postcard?
- a pretty village right by the sea
- big trees
- a pretty village behind the tall trees
- a pretty village on the hills
3. What time will the plane to Milan leave?
- 01:00
- 07:15
- 08:15
- 06:15
4. Which present has the girl bought her mother?
- earrings
- music CD
- pen
- notebook
5. What time will the pie be ready?
- four fifteen
- five o'clock
- twenty past five
- fifty past four
6. What time is the swimming lesson today?
- half past four
- fifteen to five
- fifteen past five
- four thirty
7. Which subject does the boy like best?
- information technology
- geography
- sports
- design
8. Which T-shirt does the boy decide to buy?
- a short-sleeved T-shirt with round neck
- a V-neck black T-shirt
- a long-sleeved T-shirt
- a sleeveless white T-shirt
PART 2
You will hear three different conversations. In each conversation there are four questions. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversations only once.
Conversation 1. You will hear a conversation between a girl, Kate, and a boy, George.
9. What is Kate's health problem?
- She has coughs
- She has headache
- She has toothache
- She has stomach ache
10. How does Kate's problem affect her classmates?
- It makes them funny.
- It makes them annoyed.
- It makes them happy.
- It makes them excited.
11. What did Kate have last year?
- She had coughs
- She had headache
- She had a fall off her bike
- She had stomach ache
12. What does Kate have now, too?
- She has backache
- She has headache
- She has toothache
- She has temperature
Conversation 2. You will hear a conversation between a man and a woman at home.
13. Why does the man want to go out?
- Because he feels bored staying at home.
- Because he feels safe staying at home.
- Because he feels cold staying at home.
- Because he feels hot staying at home.
14. Why does the woman want to stay at home?
- Because she has coughs.
- Because she feels tired.
- Because she has toothache.
- Because she has stomach ache.
15. Why doesn't the woman want to watch an Italian film?
- Because she is short of money.
- Because she is serious about it.
- Because she's afraid she will fall asleep watching it.
- Because she has stomach ache
16. Why doesn't the woman want to watch a Robert de Niro film?
- Because she feels too busy to watch it.
- Because she feels too serious to watch it.
- Because she doesn't want to watch it the third time.
- Because she doesn't want to watch it the second time.
Conversation 3. You will hear a conversation between a girl, Lisa, and a boy, Ben, about holidays.
17. What does the girl think about a good holiday?
- It may be cheap.
- It may be very cheap.
- It may be expensive.
- It may be very expensive.
18. Why doesn't the boy want to walk?
- Because he feels too hot to do it.
- Because he finds it hard to do it.
- Because he doesn't like hard work.
- Because she doesn't like the sounds of people walking.
19. What does the girl think about the food in Youth Hostels?
- It is comfortable.
- It is good.
- It is not good.
- It is clean and cheap.
20. What does the boy decide to do in the end?
- go home
- leave home
- sell his home
- enjoy his holiday home
PART 3
You will hear three different talks or lectures. In each talk or lecture there are five questions. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You will hear the talks or lectures only once.
Talk/Lecture 1. You will hear a girl talking about her life since she left Vietnam.
21. Why did the speaker have to help her mother with the shopping?
- There were no Vietnamese people living near her.
- There were no Vietnamese working in the stores.
- There wasn't always someone to go shopping with her.
- Her mother could speak a little English.
22. Why did her father find working in a factory difficult?
- He couldn't speak any English.
- He didn't have many friends there.
- He had had a much better job in Vietnam.
- He couldn't get used to the working style.
23. Why are the speaker and her brother more fortunate than their sisters?
- They did not need extra English lessons.
- They look more American.
- They speak with American accents.
- They quickly adopted the way of life.
24. What has the speaker forgotten about life in Vietnam?
- Living close to other people
- The warm weather
- Wearing traditional clothes
- Traditional food
25. Why does she find it difficult to invite friends to her home?
- Her parents do not have much money.
- Her parents haven't adopted an American way of life.
- Her parents only know how to cook Vietnamese food.
- Her parents do not speak English well.
Talk/Lecture 2. Listen to a woman talking about boys and girls in American schools.
26. What happened in American schools before 1972?
- Girls didn't go to school.
- Every classroom was a mix of boys and girls.
- Boys could learn what they wanted.
- They didn't teach girls some subjects.
27. What is the reason that most American schools have mixed classes?
- Scientists said that it was the best thing.
- Teachers did not want to teach single-gender classes.
- A law gave girls an equal chance to learn.
- Boys and girls behave better in such classes.
28. Why might girls not get a chance to talk much in a class with boys?
- Because the teacher doesn't ask them questions
- Because boys are louder and often talk first
- Because boys know the correct answers
- Because girls are often shy.
29. What is NOT the reason that some schools are reconsidering separating classes?
- They prefer the old teaching styles.
- Boys learn differently than girls.
- Boys and girls can bother each other.
- Boys and girls like different things.
30. Which is one class that is not mentioned as being separated?
- Math
- Social Studies
- Science
- Physical Education
Talk/Lecture 3. Listen to a talk about body language in American Culture at a student orientation meeting.
31. Who is listening to the orientation talk?
- the director of international students
- new international students
- the teachers of international department
- all first-year students in the college
32. What is the purpose of this talk?
- to introduce the director for international student affairs
- to deal with all international students' problems.
- to inform the importance of using English in class.
- to introduce common problems in non-verbal communication.
33. According to the speaker, what is body language?
- It's the use of verb tenses and modals.
- It's the way to ask for directions
- It's the language used in class only.
- It's the language of movements and facial expressions.
34. In American culture, ...
- Eye contact is the same as most cultures.
- making eye contact is a sign of disrespect.
- people don't look in others' eyes while talking.
- eye contact is considered as a sign of honesty.
35. According to the speaker, what is TRUE about handshakes in American Culture?
- A handshake shouldn't be too strong.
- Handshakes are not common.
- Handshakes need to be firm.
- Shaking hands is not important.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Cần luyện tập thêm: Kỹ năng nghe của bạn cần được củng cố nhiều hơn. Hãy bắt đầu với các đoạn hội thoại ngắn và các bài nói đơn giản để làm quen dần.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ở mức ổn. Để đạt kết quả cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc nghe các bài giảng dài hơn và chú ý đến các chi tiết quan trọng.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng nghe của bạn rất tốt. Bạn có thể nghe và hiểu được các bài nói dài với nhiều thông tin phức tạp.
PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10
A new study, conducted by scientists from Oxford University, the Chinese Academy of Medical Sciences and the Chinese Center for Disease Control, has warned that a third of all men currently under the age of 20 in China will eventually die prematurely if they do not give up smoking.
The research, published in The Lancet medical journal, says two-thirds of men in China now start to smoke before 20. Around half of those men will die from the habit, it concludes.
In 2010, around one million people in China died from tobacco usage. But researchers say that if current trends continue, that will double to two million people - mostly men - dying every year by 2030, making it a "growing epidemic of premature death".
But co-author Richard Peto said there was hope - if people can be persuaded to quit. "The key to avoid this huge wave of deaths is cessation, and if you are a young man, don't start," he said.
In many parts of China, meals often fit a comfortable pattern. After putting down their chopsticks, men commonly push their chairs back from the table and light cigarettes. No wonder China has struggled to impose a smoking ban in public places. Here, relationships are often built amid clouds of smoke.
Expensive brands of cigarettes, often decorated with gold detailing on the cartons, are given as gifts. And ordinary brands are affordable to all but the very poor, costing just 2.5 yuan ($0.4; £0.25) a pack.
In a country where smoking is so ingrained in daily life, few understand the harmful effects of tobacco use. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), only 25% of Chinese adults can list the specific health hazards of smoking, from lung cancer to heart disease.
Perhaps it should come as no surprise, then, that only 10% of Chinese smokers quit by choice. Instead, most are forced to give up their cigarettes because they're too sick to continue.
While smoking rates have fallen in developed countries - to less than one in five in the US - they have risen in China, as cigarettes have become more available and consumers richer.
Authorities have shown concern over the rise, with Beijing even introducing a public smoking ban. But efforts have been hampered by the habit's popularity, and its usefulness as a source of tax - the government collects about 428 billion yuan (£44billion, $67billion) in tobacco taxes each year.
Globally, tobacco kills up to half of its users, according to the World Health Organization.
1. How many Chinese men start to smoke before the age of 20?
- one-third
- two-thirds
- half
- all of them
2. What does the word "those men" in paragraph 2 refer to?
- Men who smoke under the age of 20
- Men who smoke above the age of 20
- Men who give up smoking
- Men who smoke in public
3. By 2030, how many men in China may die from smoking every year?
- one million
- two million
- three million
- four million
4. In many areas of China, when do men usually smoke?
- Before a meal
- After a meal
- Before they go to sleep
- When they get up
5. According to WHO, only ______ of Chinese adults can list bad effects of smoking.
- one-third
- one-fourth
- one-fifth
- a half
6. "Beijing" refers to ..........
- China
- The city of Beijing
- The Chinese government
- People who live in Beijing
7. What is Richard Peto's attitude toward smoking in China?
- He doesn't believe that people will give up smoking
- He is disappointed with the Chinese government.
- He thinks that people possibly stop smoking if they see reasons.
- He is sure about the rise of future deaths in China.
8. Which of the following words does the word "hamper" have closest meaning to?
- basket
- assist
- prohibit
- restrict
9. What is the writer's purpose?
- To argue over smoking policy in China
- To support smoking in China
- To warn and prevent smoking in China
- To report the result of a research paper
10. What does the writer imply about Chinese government?
- They do not want to stop people from smoking.
- They have tried to stop people from smoking in public but with little success.
- They have tried to close tobacco companies.
- They do not care about smoking.
PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20
The evidence that humans are causing global warming is strong, but the question of what to do about it remains controversial. Economics, sociology, and politics are all important factors in planning for the future.
Even if we stopped emitting greenhouse gases (GHGs) today, the Earth would still warm by another degree Fahrenheit or so. But what we do from today forward makes a big difference. Depending on our choices, scientists predict that the Earth could eventually warm by as little as 2.5 degrees or as much as 10 degrees Fahrenheit.
A commonly cited goal is to stabilize GHG concentrations around 450-550 parts per million (ppm), or about twice pre-industrial levels. This is the point at which many believe the most damaging impacts of climate change can be avoided. Current concentrations are about 380 ppm, which means there isn't much time to lose. According to the IPCC, we'd have to reduce GHG emissions by 50% to 80% of what they're on track to be in the next century to reach this level.
Is this possible?
Many people and governments are already working hard to cut greenhouse gases, and everyone can help.
Researchers Stephen Pacala and Robert Socolow at Princeton University have suggested one approach that they call "stabilization wedges." This means reducing GHG emissions from a variety of sources with technologies available in the next few decades, rather than relying on an enormous change in a single area. They suggest 7 wedges that could each reduce emissions, and all of them together could hold emissions at approximately current levels for the next 50 years, putting us on a potential path to stabilize around 500 ppm.
There are many possible wedges, including improvements to energy efficiency and vehicle fuel economy (so less energy has to be produced), and increases in wind and solar power, hydrogen produced from renewable sources, biofuels (produced from crops), natural gas, and nuclear power. There is also the potential to capture the carbon dioxide emitted from fossil fuels and store it underground—a process called "carbon sequestration."
In addition to reducing the gases we emit to the atmosphere, we can also increase the amount of gases we take out of the atmosphere. Plants and trees absorb CO2 as they grow, "sequestering" carbon naturally. Increasing forestlands and making changes to the way we farm could increase the amount of carbon we're storing.
Some of these technologies have drawbacks, and different communities will make different decisions about how to power their lives, but the good news is that there are a variety of options to put us on a path toward a stable climate.
11. The word "we" in paragraph 2 refers to ..........
- humans
- economists, sociologists, and politicians
- animals
- scientists
12. According to paragraph 2, how many degrees could the Earth warm up?
- 2.5
- 2.5 or 10
- 10
- from 2.5 to 10
13. According to paragraph 3, why should we stabilize GHG concentrations around 450-550 parts per million?
- to avoid the most serious effects of climate change
- to avoid all damaging impacts of climate change
- to mend the most damaging impacts of climate change
- to stop climate change
14. What does "which" in paragraph 3 refer to?
- current concentrations
- that current concentrations are about 380 ppm
- 380 ppm
- ppm
15. Why does the author mention Stephen Pacala and Robert Socolow?
- To introduce two researchers in the field
- To proves that researchers are working to reduce GHG emission
- To introduce one way to reduce GHG emission
- To introduce Princeton University
16. What stabilization wedges are NOT mentioned in the passage?
- create environment-friendly materials
- capture and store carbon dioxide underground
- increase the use of renewable energy
- grow more trees
17. What does "them" refer to?
- researchers
- humans
- renewable resources
- wedges
18. What is the best title for this passage?
- Arguments over Global Warming
- Global Warming and its Causes
- Global Warming Solutions
- Global Warming's Effect on Earth
19. "Sequestering" has closest meaning to ..........
- absorb
- isolate
- release
- emit
20. Why does the writer mention "drawbacks" in the last paragraph?
- To introduce the disadvantages of solutions in the following paragraph
- To emphasize the disadvantages of the solutions in the previous paragraph
- To recommend readers not to use the solutions
- To emphasize the advantages of the solutions in different contexts
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy tập trung đọc và hiểu ý chính của từng đoạn trước khi trả lời câu hỏi.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc và nắm bắt thông tin tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy chú ý hơn đến các câu hỏi suy luận và từ vựng.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích thông tin của bạn rất ấn tượng.
PASSAGE 3 – Questions 1-10
Art communicates to us primarily through our eyes. We look at art, and we try to find some meaning in the experience. If we are to begin to think about art more seriously, we might do well to become more aware of the process of seeing itself.
Science tells us that seeing is a mode of perception, or the recognition and interpretation of sensory data-in other words, how information comes in our senses, and what we make of it. In visual perception our eyes take in information in the form of light patterns; the brain processes these patterns to give them meaning. The mechanics of perception work much the same way for everyone, yet in a given situation we do not all see the same things.
We can take great pleasure in merely looking at art, just as we take pleasure in the view of a distant mountain range or watching the sun set over the ocean. But art, unlike nature, is a human creation. It is one of the many ways we express ourselves and attempt to communicate. A work of art is the product of human intelligence, and we can meet it with our own intelligence on equal footing. This is where study comes in.
The understanding of process - the how - often contributes quite a lot to our appreciation of art. If you understand why painting in watercolor may be different from painting in oil, why clay responds differently to the artist's hands than does wood or glass - you will have a richer appreciation of the artist's expression.
Knowing the place of a work of art in history - what went before and came after - can also deepen your understanding. Artists learn to make art by studying the achievements of the past and observing the efforts of their contemporaries. They adapt ideas to serve their own needs and then bequeath those ideas to future generations of artists. For example, Matisse assumed that his audience would know that Venus was the ancient Roman goddess of love. But he also hoped that they would be familiar with one Venus in particular, a famous Greek statue known as the Venus de Milo.
An artist may create a specific work for any of a thousand reasons. An awareness of the why may give some insight as well. Looking at Van Gogh's The Starry Night, it might help you know that Van Gogh was intrigued by the belief that people journeyed to a star after their death, and that there they continued their lives. "Just as we take the train to get to Tarascon or Rouen," he wrote in a letter, "we take death to reach a star." This knowledge might help you understand why Van Gogh felt so strongly about the night sky, and what his painting might have meant to him.
But no matter how much you study, Van Gogh's painting will never mean for you exactly what it meant for him, nor should it. Great works of art hold many meanings. The greatest of them seem to speak anew to each generation and to each attentive observer. The most important thing is that they mean something for you, that your own experiences, thoughts, and emotions find a place in them.
1. According to paragraph 2, the process of visual perception ..........
- is not the same for all people
- begins with patterns of light
- is not very scientific
- requires other senses to function
2. What did Matisse reinterpret?
- A goddess from mythology
- A painting by another artist
- An ancient sculpture
- A man in history
3. The word "them" in the last paragraph refers to ..........
- each attentive observer
- thoughts and emotions
- a lifetime of experiences
- great works of art
4. The word "bequeath" in the passage is closest in meaning to ..........
- make out
- pass on
- look over
- take in
5. The author mentions all of the following ways to enhance the appreciation of art EXCEPT ......
- understanding the artistic process
- becoming familiar with the history
- experiencing the art by copying
- knowing about the life of the artist
6. What is the main topic of this passage?
- Visual perception of sensory material
- The historical context for artistic expression
- Studying Van Gogh's The Starry Night
- The appreciation of works of art
7. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted statement in the passage?
- We see images differently because of the mode of perception.
- Although we see images differently, the mode of perception is similar.
- Since the mode of perception is similar, we see images in the same way.
- When the mode of perception is the same, we see the same images
8. Why might Van Gogh have painted The Starry Night?
- To symbolize the journey of life after death
- To create a dramatic contrast with the sky
- To place a strong image in the foreground
- To include nature from his early experience
9. The word "intrigued" in the passage is closest in meaning to ..........
- very pleased
- very confused
- very interested
- very surprised
10. What can be inferred from the last paragraph?
- Greatest artworks are impossible to understand.
- The author shows negative feelings toward contemporary art.
- People need knowledge to understand art.
- What we see in art is determined by our emotions, experiences, and thoughts.
PASSAGE 4 – Questions 11-20
Antibiotics block the life cycle of bacteria that invade the human body. The first of these antibiotics, penicillin, works by blocking the molecules that construct the cell walls of particular bacteria. The bacteria, with incomplete cell walls, are not able to reproduce.
When penicillin was introduced during World War II, it was truly a "miracle drug." Until that time, anyone who was cut or wounded stood a great risk of infection. Once penicillin became available, the situation changed. Wounded soldiers, children with ear infections, and many others began to benefit from the ability to block the growth of bacteria.
While humanity may have won that particular battle against bacteria, the war is far from over. The reason is that in any bacterial population, there are bound to be a few bacteria that, for one reason or another, are not affected by a particular antibiotic. For example, they may have a slightly differently shaped enzyme that builds cell walls, so that penicillin will not fit onto that particular shape of the enzyme. These bacteria will not be affected by that particular drug.
For that small group, the antibiotic is a real godsend. It doesn't affect them, but it does wipe out all of their competition. They are thus free to multiply, and, over time, all of the bacteria will have whatever properties that made those individuals resistant.
Traditionally, medical scientists have dealt with this phenomenon by developing a large number of antibiotics, each of which intervenes in the bacterial life cycle in a slightly different way.
Consequently, if you happen to have a bacterium that is resistant to one antibiotic, probably it will succumb to the action of another. You may, in fact, have had the experience of going to a doctor with an infection, being given an antibiotic, and then finding that it didn't work. In all likelihood, all your doctor had to do then was prescribe a different antibiotic and everything was fine.
The problem is that as time has passed, more and more bacteria have become resistant to antibiotics. In fact, currently, there is one strain of bacteria- Staphylococcus-that is resistant to every commercially available antibiotic except one, and in 1996, a bacterium with lowered resistance to that last antibiotic appeared in Japan.
The appearance of drug-resistant bacteria is not particularly surprising; in fact, it probably should have been anticipated. Nevertheless, in the late 1980s, there was a general sense of complacency among scientists on the antibiotic question. Little profit was to be made by developing the one-hundred-and-first antibiotic. Drug companies concentrated their efforts on other areas. Therefore, a gap developed between the production of new antibiotics and the development of resistance among bacteria.
By the early 1990s, this gap was recognized and highlighted in several national news magazines. More companies returned to develop new kinds of antibiotics, and currently, a number are undergoing clinical trials. By early in the twenty-first century, some of these new drugs will start to come on the market, and the problem will be "solved," at least for the moment.
Additional research will focus on the processes by which cells repair the constant damage to DNA, but the computer design of new drugs, the development of new antibiotics, and techniques to combat bacteria should remain a top priority.
11. How do antibiotics treat infections?
- They interfere with the reproductive cycle of bacteria.
- They construct cell walls to resist bacteria.
- They inject enzymes that explode in affected cells.
- They increase the mitosis of healthy cells
12. The word "them" in paragraph 4 refers to ..........
- whatever properties
- resistant bacteria
- their competition
- those individuals
13. The word "anticipated" in the passage is closest in meaning to .......
- predicted
- concealed
- investigated
- disregarded
14. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of this passage?
- The "miracle drug" penicillin
- Drug-resistant bacteria
- Staphylococcus infections
- Gene therapy treatments
15. According to paragraph 4, why do some bacteria benefit from antibiotics?
- The antibiotic eliminates competing bacteria, allowing resistant bacteria to reproduce.
- The resistant bacteria compete with the antibiotic, and the bacteria become stronger.
- The competition helps the resistant bacteria to multiply by reproducing with the resistant type.
- The properties of the antibiotic are acquired by the bacteria, making it resistant to the competition.
16. The word "complacency" in the passage is closest in meaning to ......
- consensus of agreement
- fear of consequences
- lack of concern
- awareness of potential
17. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted statement in the passage?
- Some antibiotics affect a population of bacteria more efficiently than others.
- There are several reasons why some bacteria do not respond to most antibiotics.
- The effect of antibiotics on bacteria is to bind them together into one population.
- A small number of bacteria in any sample will probably be resistant to a specific antibiotic.
18. The author mentions all of the following reasons for drug resistant bacteria to appear EXCEPT.......
- there was not enough profit incentive for companies to continue developing new antibiotics
- statistically, some drug-resistant bacteria will occur naturally in any large population of bacteria
- the newer antibiotics were not as strong and effective as the original penicillin-based drugs
- competing bacteria are destroyed by antibiotics, allowing resistant bacteria to prosper.
19. It can be inferred from the passage that ......
- research to develop new antibiotics will not be necessary in the future
- the scientific community was not surprised by the resistant strains of bacteria
- antibiotics are not very expensive when they are made available commercially
- it takes years for a new drug to be made available commercially for consumers
20. Which of the following statements is NOT a main idea of the passage?
- Many strains of bacteria have become resistant to the antibiotics currently available.
- Funding for the production of new antibiotics has been allocated to drug companies.
- The first antibiotics were very effective in blocking the reproduction of bacteria.
- New antibiotics are being developed to combat bacteria that resist the older antibiotics.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy tập trung vào việc đọc kỹ câu hỏi và tìm thông tin tương ứng trong bài đọc.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc và nắm bắt thông tin tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy chú ý đến các từ khóa và các câu hỏi suy luận.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này.
A: LISTENING - TEST 2
Directions: This is the listening test for levels from 3 to 5 of the Vietnam's 6-level Language Proficiency Test. There are three parts to the test. You will hear each part once. For each part of the test there will be time for you to look through the questions and time for you to check your answers. Write your answers on the question paper. You will have 5 minutes at the end of the test to transfer your answers onto the answer sheet.
PART 1
There are eight questions in this part. For each question there are four options and a short recording. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
1. What colour is Mary's coat?
- yellow
- blue
- brown
- black
2. What did the woman repair?
- chair
- shelf
- desk
- bed
3. What are they going to buy for Pam?
- a book
- a plant
- some chocolates
- candies
4. What has the girl lost?
- mobile phone
- purse
- pen
- bag
5. Which sport will the boy do soon at the centre?
- waterskiing
- diving
- sailing
- swimming
6. Who lives with Josh in his house?
- his grandmother
- his father
- his sister
- his mother
7. What will the girl take with her on holiday?
- suitcase
- sports bag
- backpack
- overhead bag
8. Where do the boys decide to go?
- cinema
- game store
- park
- library
PART 2
You will hear three different conversations. In each conversation there are four questions. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversations only once.
Conversation 1: Questions 9-12
9. Where was Geoff Thompson born?
- In London.
- In the North of England.
- In the South of London.
- In Britain.
10. How did he know about karate?
- He discovered karate by himself.
- He's interested in karate owing to a sports center during a school visit.
- His friend introduced it to him.
- He knew it when moving to London.
11. When did he take part in the World Championships in Taiwan?
- In 1972.
- In 1980.
- In 1982.
- After starting training with a British coach.
12. How many times has he got the World Champion?
- Two times.
- Three times.
- Four times.
- Five times.
Conversation 2: Questions 13-16
13. Which position does this hotel need?
- A temporary staff.
- A stable staff.
- A part-time receptionist.
- A full-time waiter.
14. What about the hour of work?
- There are two shifts and two days off.
- There are two shifts and one day off.
- There's a day shift from 7 to 2 and a late shift from 4 till 11.
- There is only afternoon shift.
15. What does the woman mention about the uniform?
- It's prepared by the hotel.
- He needs to wear dark clothes.
- He needs a white shirt and dark trousers.
- He needs wear uniform five days a week.
16. When does he start his job?
- At the end of May.
- On the 10th of May.
- On the 10th of June.
- On the 28th of June.
Conversation 3: Questions 17-20
17. What does the man plan to write his paper on?
- The preservation of old books.
- The local coal industry.
- The famous archives librarian.
- The collection of rare books.
18. What security procedures does the librarian tell the man he must follow?
- Show her his note cards before leaving.
- Show her his ID card.
- Pay a fee.
- Allow his ID card to be copied; sign in and out of the archives room.
19. Why did the librarian mention the age of the books?
- They need to be handled with gloves.
- The man can only look at photographs of them.
- They were added to the collection recently.
- They are value books.
20. How did the man collect his needed information about his paper?
- He took a picture.
- He scanned these images.
- He could just look them.
- He photocopied these books.
PART 3
You will hear three different talks or lectures. In each talk or lecture there are five questions. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You will hear the talks or lectures only once.
Talk/Lecture 1: Questions 21-25
21. The presenter doesn't wear a suit because...
- He is not an important person.
- He wants to talk about different fashion trend.
- The presentation is not formal.
- He works for a fashion company.
22. According to the speaker, which statement is TRUE?
- It's important to look casually-dressed in public.
- A suit is necessary when meeting clients.
- Wearing shorts is OK, sometimes.
- Nobody can describe the way he's dressed.
23. What does the phrase "Dress-down Fridays" mean?
- Employees must wear fashionable clothes on Fridays.
- Employees can wear anything they want on Fridays.
- Employees are allowed to wear informally on Fridays.
- Employees are required to wear special clothes on Fridays.
24. According to the speaker, who may be the most informal dressers?
- People working in IT
- People working in banks.
- People working in customer services.
- People working with clients.
25. What does a customer feel about a man in uniform?
- reliable
- recognized
- expertised
- reassured
Talk/Lecture 2: Questions 26-30
26. How many hours of sleep do experts suggest for kids?
- Ten
- About fifteen
- 1,400
- 70
27. According to the speaker, why is sleep important for the brain?
- Sleep generates dreams so brain can relax.
- Brain can rest in a sleep.
- Sleep can save energy for the brain.
- Sleep improves the effectiveness of the brain.
28. Why don't the students learn well when they are tired?
- They can't finish their homework.
- They can't deal with troubles in class.
- They get very excited.
- They can't pay attention very well
29. Which is NOT a reason for poor sleep?
- drinking soda
- playing computer games
- staying up late
- exercising before sleep
30. What should students try to do each night?
- Watch a scary movie
- Drink some hot tea
- Go to bed at a regular time
- relax with a TV show
Talk/Lecture 3: Questions 31-35
31. Which is NOT the shape of the northern lights?
- a straight line
- a curved line
- a round shape
- an oval shape
32. What does "aurora borealis" exactly mean?
- northern lights
- northern dawn
- northern sky
- early morning lights
33. Where is the best place to see the northern lights?
- The northernmost point of Earth
- The north of Poland
- Anywhere in Scandinavian countries
- Most parts of the world
34. What is one of the stories developed by people before modern science?
- The lights were caused by foxes.
- The lights were the dance of animals.
- The lights appeared when people.
- The lights came from fires of northern gods.
35. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this talk?
- A description of the lights
- The scientific explanation for the lights
- The discovery of the lights
- Beliefs about the lights
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Cần cố gắng (Bậc 3): Bạn cần luyện tập thêm kỹ năng nghe hiểu các đoạn hội thoại ngắn và các bài nói chuyện đơn giản. Hãy tập trung nắm bắt ý chính và các thông tin cụ thể.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Khá tốt (Bậc 4): Bạn có khả năng nghe và hiểu tương đối tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy luyện tập nghe các bài giảng dài hơn và chú ý đến các chi tiết phức tạp hơn trong bài.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Xuất sắc (Bậc 5): Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng nghe của bạn rất tốt. Bạn có thể hiểu được các bài nói dài, phức tạp và suy luận được ý của người nói.
Time permitted: 60 minutes
Number of questions: 40
Directions: In this section you will read FOUR different passages. Each one is followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10
Doctors treat patients for free at clinic in Ha Noi
For 20 years, Dang Thi Nhan, 67, has been waking up about 30 minutes earlier each day to bake cakes or prepare tea for two retired doctors in a clinic near her house in Ha Noi's Giap Bat Ward. That is all Nhan can offer as thanks to doctors who provide free health checks for herself, her paralysed husband and their 43-year-old disabled son. "If one day they cannot take care of themselves and need some one to look after, I will do it voluntarily till the day they are gone," Nhan said.
The small clinic, situated on Kim Dong Street, has become familiar to many people in Ha Noi. It was established in 1992 by Dr Truong Thi Hoi To, 84, a former principal of Nam Dinh Medical College, Le Thi Soc, 87, a retired nurse from Saint Paul Municipal Hospital, and Le Thanh Thuoc, the late deputy director of the Viet Nam National Cancer Hospital, who died last year. The clinic used to open every Monday and Thursday. However, after doctor Thuoc died and due to the deteriorating health of the two other medics, the clinic now only opens on Monday mornings at 8 am. Patients not only receive health checks, but they also receive free medicine.
Since 2014, the clinic has treated about 8,500 patients, according to Giap Bat ward's Red Cross Association. On its first days, the clinic faced numerous difficulties due to lack of money. Mrs. To, founder of the clinic, had to spend her own pension and encourage her children and relatives to donate money to purchase medical equipment and medicine. The clinic also had to relocate seven times as To and her co-workers could not afford high rents. Despite these difficulties, they never thought of giving up. "Being able to help my patients brings me unspeakable joy. This is also my life target. It warms my heart to see the happy faces of the patients," To said.
Tran Thi Toan, 64, a patient from Nam Dinh Province, now works as a servant in Ha Noi. She is grateful to doctor To and nurse Soc not just for the free treatment, but for their caring manner. Toan said: "They give me meticulous treatment and clear, detailed instruction as well as advise me on a healthy and happy lifestyle". Toan feels shy about her job, so the doctors' care and compassionate attitude have become her inspiration in life.
To the doctors, the most precious thing they receive from their patients is confidence in their skills, which can only be achieved through ethics and medical excellence. "The success of a doctor does not lies in how much money they earn, but how many people they help", Soc said. Sharing Soc's opinion, To said that "Medical practitioners should not consider their profession as a tool to get rich. They should not benefit from their patients' pain. Patients come first, not money."
Question 1
How old was Dang Thi Nhan when she first started to bake cakes or prepare tea for the two doctors?
- 20
- 67
- 43
- 47
Question 2
The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to
- two doctors
- husband and son
- health checks
- cakes
Question 3
The word "late" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
- last-minute
- behind
- delayed
- deceased
Question 4
The word "its" in paragraph 3 refers to
- Red Cross Association
- the clinic
- medicine
- pension
Question 5
Who probably did not work in a hospital before retirement?
- Le Thi Soc
- Le Thanh Thuoc
- Truong Thi Hoi To
- All of them
Question 6
In which lines does the author mention about the bad health condition of the doctors at the clinic.....
- line 5
- line 13
- line 23
- line 28
Question 7
The word "donate" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by
- give
- take
- keep
- get
Question 8
What has helped Mrs. Tran Thi Toan gain confidence in her life?
- her job as a servant
- her gratitude to all doctors
- her healthy and happy lifestyle
- doctors' caring manner and free treatment at clinic
Question 9
In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit? "They treat me as a close member of their family. There is no discrimination between the rich and the poor. Everyone is treated equally." She added.
- A
- B
- C
- D
Question 10
The last paragraph indicates Mrs. Soc's opinion that a doctor is successful if ....
- he/she earns a lot of money
- he/she is confident in his/her skills
- he/she helps a lot of patients
- he/she benefits from their patients' pain
PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20
To Get a Job in Your 50s, Maintain Friendships in Your 40s.
We hear it all the time: People who are over 50 take longer to find jobs than younger people. Connie Wanberg, a professor at the Carlson School of Management at the University of Minnesota, had long heard gloom-and-doom stories to that effect, but she wondered how strong the data was to support them.
Very, as it turned out. According to a study by Professor Wanberg and others, job seekers over 50 were unemployed 5.8 weeks longer than those from the ages of 30 to 49. That number rose to 10.6 weeks when the comparison group was from 20 to 29. Professor Wanberg and three other researchers - Darla J. Hamann, Ruth Kanfer and Zhen Zhang arrived at those numbers by analyzing and synthesizing hundreds of studies by economists, sociologists and psychologists.
But it is important not to jump to conclusions about the cause, Professor Wanberg said. "It's not very unusual for everybody to think that the reason for the difficulty in finding jobs at 50s is discrimination," she said. That can sometimes be the case, but the reality is that the behavior required to find work does not play to many older people's strengths. Once they become aware of this, they can act to compensate.
In their study, the researchers found that older people on average had smaller social networks than younger people, Professor Wanberg said. This is not necessarily bad – as we age, many of us find that the quality of our relationships is more important than the quantity. But in the job search process, the number of connections we maintain in our professional and personal networks is often critical.
As people age, they also tend to stay in the same job longer, consistent with a pattern of wanting to put down roots. During that time, the skills people have learned and the job search strategies they once used may become outdated - especially as technology evolves ever more quickly.
The cure for these drawbacks is fairly straightforward. Once you hit your early 40s, even if you are not looking for a job, work to learn new skills and stretch yourself, Professor Wanberg said. Also, keep your networks strong by staying in touch with former colleagues and classmates, along with current co-workers and clients whom you don't see regularly, she said.
Finding a job after 50 doesn't have to be as discouraging as it is often portrayed to be, Professor Wanberg said. Just recognize that some of the obstacles you face are inherent to the aging process, she said. She stressed that her findings reflected only averages and that individual behavior varies greatly. Certainly, many older people maintain wide social circles and often learn skills. But in general, older job seekers must take more steps to find employment than younger ones, she said.
Once older workers do find a new employer, they can use their knowledge, wisdom and emotional intelligence qualities that older people often possess in abundance to thrive in their new positions.
Question 11
The word "gloom-and-doom" in the first paragraph could be best replaced by
- hopeless
- interesting.
- cheerful
- strange
Question 12
According to the study, which age group has the least unemployed time?
- less than 20
- from 20 to 29
- from 30 to 49
- over 50
Question 13
In the third paragraph, what best paraphrases the sentence "It's not very unusual for everybody to think that the reason for the difficulty in finding jobs at 50s is discrimination"?
- People do not usually think about the cause of discrimination in finding jobs at 50s.
- People do not usually think that discrimination is the reason for the difficulty at 50s.
- People commonly believe that finding jobs at 50s causes discrimination.
- People commonly believe that discrimination makes finding jobs at 50s difficult.
Question 14
The word "their" in paragraph 4 refers to
- the researchers
- older people
- social networks
- younger people
Question 15
The word "critical" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by
- huge
- demanding
- trivial
- important
Question 16
What advice does Professor Wanberg give to over 50 year-old job seekers when they are still at early 40s?
- maintaining small but strong social networks
- becoming aware of their strengths
- learning new skills and keeping wide social circles
- staying in the same job longer.
Question 17
The word "these drawbacks" in paragraph 6 refers to
- outdated skills and job search strategies
- small numbers of connection networks
- lost social circles with co-workers and clients
- low quality and small quantity of relationships
Question 18
What of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
- Finding a job after 50 is not at all hopeless
- Older people hardly learn new skills and maintain wide social networks.
- Older people often have many good qualities
- Findings of the study does not hold true for all older people.
Question 19
Which of the following would best describe Professor Wanberg's attitude towards finding a job after 50?
- hopeless
- frustrated
- optimistic
- discouraging
Question 20
What is the purpose of this passage?
- To report the difficulties of finding jobs at 50s.
- To discuss the advantages and disadvantages of 50 year-old job seekers.
- To warn people against skipping jobs at later ages.
- To raise awareness on the importance of maintaining social connections and learning new skills at early stages.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần luyện tập thêm: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy tập trung vào việc xác định ý chính của đoạn văn và tìm thông tin chi tiết để trả lời câu hỏi.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có nền tảng đọc hiểu tốt. Để tiến bộ, hãy chú ý đến các câu hỏi suy luận và từ vựng trong ngữ cảnh.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Rất tốt: Chúc mừng! Bạn có kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích văn bản rất vững chắc. Hãy tiếp tục phát huy!
MARY'S FIRST JOB
When I was just fifteen, my father purchased an old hostel in the country where we lived and decided to turn it into a luxury hotel. At the early stages of the hotel, he experimented with everything. None of us had ever worked in a hotel before, but my dad had a vision of what guests wanted. His standards were extremely high and he believed that to reach those standards the most important thing was work.
For a month that summer I worked as a waitress at breakfast and dinner. As part of the job I had to lay the tables in the dining room beforehand and clean up afterwards. This gave me the middle of the day free for studying because my school report predictably had not lived up to my father's high expectations.
Like all the other waitresses, I was equipped with a neat uniform and told to treat the guests as though they were special visitors in my own home. Although I felt more like a stranger in theirs, I did not express my feelings. Instead I concentrated on doing the job as well as, if not better than, the older girls.
In the kitchen I learned how to deal with Gordon, the chef, who I found rather daunting. He had an impressive chef's hat and a terrifying ability to lose his temper and get violent for no clear reason. I avoided close contact with him and always grabbed the dishes he gave me with a cold look on my face. Then, as I walked from the kitchen to the dining room, my cold expression used to change into a charming smile.
I found waiting at breakfast was more enjoyable than at dinner. The guests came wandering into the dining room from seven-thirty onwards, staring with pleasure at the view of the sea and the islands through the dining room window. I always made sure that everyone got their order quickly and I enjoyed getting on well with the people at each table.
In the evenings it was funny how differently people behaved; they talked with louder, less friendly voices, and did not always return my smile. However, that all changed when Dad created a special role for me which improved my status considerably.
I started by making simple cakes for guests' picnics and soon progressed to more elaborate cakes for afternoon teas. I found that recipes were easy to follow and it was amusing to improvise. This led to a nightly event known as Mary's Sweet Trolley. I used to enter the dining room every evening pushing a trolley carrying an extraordinary collection of puddings, cakes and other desserts. Most of them were of my own invention, I had cooked them all myself, and some were undeniably strange.
1. The word "it" in line 2 refers to
- an old hostel
- the country
- a luxury hotel
- Mary's first job
2. What did the people working at the hotel have in common?
- They knew what the guests expected.
- They shared all the jobs.
- They lacked experience.
- They enjoyed the work.
3. Mary's working day was organized in order to give her
- time for her school work.
- working experience.
- time at midday to relax.
- time to have lunch with her father.
4. In the second paragraph, what best paraphrases the sentence "my school report predictably had not lived up to my father's high expectations"?
- The school made a report about my expectations to my father.
- My father has not satisfied with my results at school.
- The report from school is highly predictable to my father.
- My father expects to receive the school report soon.
5. What does the writer mean by "daunting" in line 16?
- disgusting
- frightening
- interesting
- strange
6. What did Mary do while she walked from the kitchen to the dining room?
- She smiled at Gordon in a friendly way.
- She avoided touching Gordon.
- She checked the food Gordon gave her.
- She started to look more friendly.
7. Why did Mary enjoy serving breakfasts more than dinners?
- She enjoyed the view from the dining room while working.
- She had a better relationship with the guests.
- The guests were more punctual than at dinner.
- She worked more efficiently at breakfast.
8. How did Mary's father improve her position in the hotel?
- He put her in charge of the restaurant.
- He asked her to provide entertainment for the guests.
- He made her responsible for part of dinner.
- He gave her a special uniform.
9. What was special about the food on Mary's Sweet Trolley?
- Mary made it following traditional recipes.
- Mary made the same food for picnics.
- Mary and Gordon made it together.
- Mary made most of it without following recipes.
10. What impression does Mary give of her job throughout the passage?
- It brought her closer to her father.
- It was sometimes uncomfortable.
- It was always enjoyable.
- It was quite easy to do.
Potash (the old name for potassium carbonate) is one of the two alkalis (the other being soda, sodium carbonate) that were used from remote antiquity in the making of glass, and from the early Middle Ages in the making of soap: the former being the product of heating a mixture of alkali and sand, the latter a product of alkali and vegetable oil. Their importance in the communities of colonial North America need hardly be stressed.
Potash and soda are not interchangeable for all purposes, but for glass-or soap-making either would do. Soda was obtained largely from the ashes of certain Mediterranean sea plants, potash from those of inland vegetation. Hence potash was more familiar to the early European settlers of the North American continent.
The settlement at Jamestown in Virginia was in many ways a microcosm of the economy of colonial North America, and potash was one of its first concerns. It was required for the glassworks, the first factory in the British colonies, and was produced in sufficient quantity to permit the inclusion of potash in the first cargo shipped out of Jamestown. The second ship to arrive in the settlement from England included among its passengers experts in potash making.
The method of making potash was simple enough. Logs was piled up and burned in the open, and the ashes collected. The ashes were placed in a barrel with holes in the bottom, and water was poured over them. The solution draining from the barrel was boiled down in iron kettles. The resulting mass was further heated to fuse the mass into what was called potash.
In North America, potash making quickly became an adjunct to the clearing of land for agriculture, for it was estimated that as much as half the cost of clearing land could be recovered by the sale of potash. Some potash was exported from Maine and New Hampshire in the seventeenth century, but the market turned out to be mainly domestic, consisting mostly of shipments from the northern to the southern colonies. For despite the beginning of the trade at Jamestown and such encouragements as a series of acts to encourage the making of potash, beginning in 1707 in South Carolina, the softwoods in the South proved to be poor sources of the substance.
11. What aspect of potash does the passage mainly discuss?
- How it was made
- Its value as a product for export
- How it differs from other alkalis
- Its importance in colonial North America
12. All of the following statements are true of both potash and soda EXCEPT............
- They are alkalis.
- They are made from sea plants.
- They are used in making soap.
- They are used in making glass.
13. The phrase "the latter" in paragraph 1 refers to
- alkali
- glass
- sand
- soap
14. The word "stressed" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by
- defined
- emphasized
- adjusted
- mentioned
15. The word "interchangeable" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .....
- convenient
- identifiable
- equivalent
- advantageous
16. It can be inferred from the passage that potash was more common than soda in colonial North America because
- the materials needed for making soda were not readily available
- making potash required less time than making soda
- potash was better than soda for making glass and soap
- the colonial glassworks found soda more difficult to use
17. According to paragraph 4, all of the following were needed for making potash EXCEPT ......
- wood
- fire
- sand
- water
18. The word "adjunct" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
- addition
- answer
- problem
- possibility
19. According to the passage, a major benefit of making potash was that
- it could be exported to Europe in exchange for other goods
- it helped finance the creation of farms
- it could be made with a variety of materials
- stimulated the development of new ways of glassmaking
20. According to paragraph 5, the softwoods in the South posed which of the following problems for southern settles?
- The softwoods were not very plentiful.
- The softwoods could not be used to build houses.
- The softwoods were not very marketable.
- The softwoods were not very useful for making potash.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy dành thời gian đọc lại các đoạn văn và phân tích kỹ câu hỏi để tìm ra đáp án chính xác.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc hiểu tốt. Để tiến bộ hơn, hãy chú ý đến các câu hỏi yêu cầu suy luận và tìm ý chính của đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Bạn có kỹ năng đọc và phân tích thông tin rất tốt. Hãy tiếp tục phát huy!
TEST 3 - A. LISTENING
Directions: This is the listening test for levels from 3 to 5 of the Vietnam's 6-level Language Proficiency Test. There are three parts to the test. You will hear each part once.
PART 1 - Questions 1-8
For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
1. What have they forgotten?
- ticket
- camera
- passport
- bag
2. What time does the train go?
- 06:15
- 07:40
- 06:10
- 07:10
3. How did the woman get to work?
- by bicycle
- by bus
- by car
- by train
4. Where are the man's shoes?
- under the chair
- by the television
- by the door with the other rubbish
- under the table
5. What will Paul get at the shop?
- mushrooms
- onions
- carrots
- red pepper
6. How were they told to do their homework?
- write it in the books
- write it on paper
- type it
- email it
7. What did Helen buy?
- gloves
- sweater
- socks
- hat
8. How did the woman get to work today?
- by bus
- a neighbour offered her a lift
- by bike
- walk
PART 2 - Questions 9-20
You will hear three different conversations. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Conversation 1: Questions 9-12
9. What hours does the speaker work on Monday?
- Noon to 6 PM
- 8:15 AM to 5 PM
- 7 AM to 12 PM
- 5 PM to 9 PM
10. On which two days does the speaker have the same schedule?
- Monday and Tuesday
- Wednesday and Thursday
- Tuesday and Thursday
- Thursday and Friday
11. What is the main purpose of the speaker's talk?
- To discuss the importance of the job
- To compare the work of doctors and dentists
- To describe a typical week at work
- To explain the details of a day at work
12. What does the speaker think of her work?
- She enjoys sleeping late every morning.
- It is difficult to describe her schedule.
- She enjoys helping the patients.
- It is too complicated to remember.
Conversation 2: Questions 13-16
13. According to the conversation, which item did the woman NOT purchase with her credit card?
- a digital camera
- DVD player
- a TV
- a stereo
14. What is one reason to explain why the woman obtained a student credit card?
- She wants to buy things at a discount using the card
- She hopes to establish a good credit rating.
- She doesn't want to borrow from her parents.
- She can be financially independent.
15. What does the woman imply about how she plans on resolving her credit card problems?
- She hopes that someone will give her the money.
- She plans on getting rid of her student credit cards.
- She'll get a part-time job
- She is going to return the items she purchased on the card.
16. What is the man going to do for the woman to help her manage her money?
- help her find a better paying job to cover her expenses
- teach her how to prepare a financial management plan
- show her how she can apply for low-interest student credit cards
- teach her how to shop wisely.
Conversation 3: Questions 17-20
17. Why does the customer not buy the recommended sandwich at the beginning of the conversation?
- It is too expensive.
- He is not interested in ordering a burger.
- It is not tasty.
- He fears the food will make him sick.
18. How does the specialty drink get its name?
- It contains a wide range of ingredients.
- It is prepared in the kitchen sink.
- It contains chicken soup.
- It comes in a very large cup.
19. Why was the man surprised by the price of his meal?
- He thought the drink should have been included.
- He felt the meal was way overpriced.
- He was charged for two sandwiches instead of one.
- It was lower than he had expected.
20. What does the customer decide to do at the end of the conversation?
- He orders something from the restaurant menu.
- He plans to come back at weekend.
- He decides to look for another place to eat.
- He plans to come in a week when the prices are lower.
PART 3 - Questions 21-35
You will hear three different talks or lectures. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Talk/Lecture 1: Questions 21-25
21. What did Sandy Duffy want to be when she was at school?
- a journalist
- a musician
- A director
- A basketball player
22. What did Sandy study at university?
- Math and Physics
- film making
- Technology
- Art
23. How did Sandy get her first job as a video game writer?
- She answered a job advertisement.
- She met someone at a conference.
- She sent some information about herself to a company.
- She was invited by a friend.
24. What does Sandy like best about being a video game writer?
- the prizes she has won.
- the high salary
- the people she works with
- the great working condition
25. What does Sandy dislike about being a video game writer?
- She has to travel a lot.
- She has to work long hours.
- She often has to change her job.
- She has to live far from home.
Talk/Lecture 2: Questions 26-30
26. How long does the trek last?
- a day
- three days
- five days
- a week
27. The trek aims to raise money for
- health care
- school education
- hospital
- the old people
28. The cost of the trek includes
- flight and airport taxes
- medical provision and taxes
- Foods
- Food and accommodation
29. Participants must
- walk across a glacier.
- complete a fitness course.
- agree to raise funds for the charity.
- pay amount of money.
30. The trip starts on
- 1st of November
- 3rd of November
- 13th of November
- 23th of November
Talk/Lecture 3: Questions 31-35
31. Where do many of the rich people live?
- next to the new road
- in the cities.
- in the countryside.
- in isolated places.
32. How long is the road?
- 600 kilometres
- 6,000 kilometers
- 60,000 kilometres
- 60 miles
33. What can you see on the computers at the road's headquarters in Delhi?
- small vehicles on the road.
- any vehicle and problems on the road
- big vehicles on the road
- serious problems on the road
34. What types of transport can you see on the road?
- all types
- mostly cars
- mostly motorbikes
- the presenter doesn't say
35. Why does the presenter describe the new road as a symbol of India's future?
- because it's the same shape as the country of India.
- because it is modern, it is helping the economy grow.
- Because India has big population
- Because India has lots of transport
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng nghe hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy tập trung nghe và nhận biết các thông tin cơ bản trong các đoạn hội thoại ngắn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy luyện tập nghe các bài giảng dài hơn và chú ý đến các chi tiết cụ thể.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng nghe hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
B: READING
Time permitted: 60 minutes
Number of questions: 40
Directions: In this section you will read FOUR different passages. Each one is followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
Questions 1-10
Phillis Wheatley was born in Gambia (in Africa) on May 8, 1753 and died in Boston on December 5, 1784.
When she was 7 or 8, she was sold as a slave to John and Susanna Wheatley of Boston. She was named after the ship that brought her to America, The Phillis.
The Poetry Foundation describes her sale:
In August 1761, "in want of a domestic," Susanna Wheatley, ... purchased "a slender, frail female child ... for a trifle"... The captain of the slave ship believed that the waif was terminally ill, and he wanted ... at least a small profit before she died.... The family surmised the girl-who was "of slender frame and evidently suffering from a change of climate," nearly naked, with "no other covering than a quantity of dirty carpet about her" - to be "about seven years old ... from the circumstances of shedding her front teeth." (http://www.poetryfoundation.org/bio/phillis-wheatley)
Phillis was very intelligent. The Wheatley family taught her to read and write, and encouraged her to write poetry. Her first poem "On Messrs. Hussey and Coffin" was published when she was only twelve. In 1770, "An Elegiac Poem, on the Death of that Celebrated Divine, and Eminent Servant of Jesus Christ, the Reverend and Learned George Whitefield" made her famous. It was published in Boston, Newport, and Philadelphia.
When she was eighteen, Phillis and Mrs. Wheatley tried to sell a collection containing twenty-eight of her poems. Colonists did not want to buy poetry written by an African. Mrs. Wheatley wrote to England to ask Selina Hastings, Countess of Huntingdon, for help. The countess was a wealthy supporter of evangelical and abolitionist (anti-slavery) causes. She had Poems on Various Subjects, Religious and Moral published in England in 1773. This book made Phillis famous in England and the thirteen colonies. She wrote a poem for George Washington in 1775, and he praised her work. They met in 1776. Phillis supported independence for the colonies during the Revolutionary War.
After her master died, Phillis was emancipated. She married John Peters, a free black man, in 1778. She and her husband lost two children as infants. John would be imprisoned for debt in 1784. Phillis and her remaining child died in December of 1784 and were buried in an unmarked grave. Nevertheless, the legacy of Phillis Wheatly lives on. She became the first African American and the first slave in the United States to publish a book. She proved that slaves or former slaves had a valuable voice in the Revolutionary era.
1. It can be inferred from the passage that the Countess of Huntingdon
- didn't care about Phillis' poetry
- helped Phillis get her writings published
- believed in slavery
- was surprised that Phillis could read and write
2. What question is answered in last paragraph?
- Who did Phillis marry?
- Where were Phillis' works published?
- What did Phillis prove?
- Why was Phillis a slave?
3. Phillis finally became free ...
- when she published her poems in England
- after meeting the Countess of Huntingdon
- when she became wealthy
- after her master died
4. Phillis' first attempt at selling her poetry in America (the colonies) was ...
- illegal
- imaginary
- unsuccessful
- successful
5. Which of the following is TRUE about Phillis Wheatley?
- She was the first African-American slave to visit England.
- She was the first African-American and slave to publish a book in the United States.
- She was the first African-American and slave to be able to read and write
- She was the first African-American and slave to meet George Washington.
6. The Wheatley family estimated the age of the slave girl they named "Phills" by
- her size
- the condition of her teeth
- her color
- her weight
7. By the age of twelve, Phillis was
- no longer a slave
- married
- a published poet
- still not able to read or write
8. The slaveowner who sold Phillis to the Wheatley family believed
- she would soon recover from her illness
- she was very intelligent
- she was worth a lot of money
- she would soon die
9. Who was George Whitefield?
- A military general
- Somebody who Phillis admired greatly
- Phillis' husband
- A slave owner
10. Where is Phillis Wheatley buried?
- No one knows
- Africa
- Boston
- Virginia
Questions 11-20
The conservatism of the early English colonists in North America, their strong attachment to the English way of doing things, would play a major part in the furniture that was made in New England. The very tools that the first New England furniture makers used were, after all, not much different from those used for centuries- even millennia: basic hammers, saws, chisels, planes, augers, compasses, and measures. These were the tools used more or less by all people who worked with wood: carpenters, barrel makers, and shipwrights. At most the furniture makers might have had planes with special edges or more delicate chisels, but there could not have been much specialization in the early years of the colonies.
The furniture makers in those early decades of the 1600' s were known as "joiners," for the primary method of constructing furniture, at least among the English of this time, was that of mortise- and-tenon joinery. The mortise is the hole chiseled and cut into one piece of wood, while the tenon is the tongue or protruding element shaped from another piece of wood so that it fits into the mortise; and another small hole is then drilled (with the auger) through the mortised end and the tenon so that a whittled peg can secure the joint- thus the term "joiner." Panels were fitted into slots on the basic frames. This kind of construction was used for making everything from houses to chests.
Relatively little hardware was used during this period. Some nails- forged by hand- were used, but no screws or glue. Hinges were often made of leather, but metal hinges were also used. The cruder varieties were made by blacksmiths in the colonies, but the finer metal elements were imported. Locks and escutcheon plates - the latter to shield the wood from the metal key- would often be imported. Above all, what the early English colonists imported was their knowledge of, familiarity with, and dedication to the traditional types and designs of furniture they knew in England.
11. The phrase "attachment to" in line 1 is closest in meaning to
- control of
- distance from
- curiosity about
- preference for
12. The word "protruding" in line 12 is closest in meaning to
- parallel
- simple
- projecting
- important
13. The relationship of a mortise and a tenon is most similar to that of
- a lock and a key
- a book and its cover
- a cup and a saucer
- a hammer and a nail
14. For what purpose did woodworkers use an auger
- To whittle a peg
- To make a tenon
- To drill a hole
- To measure a panel
15. Which of the following were NOT used in the construction of colonial furniture?
- Mortises
- Nails
- Hinges
- Screws
16. The author implies that colonial metalworkers were.
- unable to make elaborate parts
- more skilled than woodworkers
- more conservative than other colonists
- frequently employed by joiners
17. The word "shield" in line 20 is closest in meaning to
- decorate
- copy
- shape
- protect
18. The word "they" in line 25 refers to
- designs
- types
- colonists
- all
19. The author implies that the colonial joiners ........
- were highly paid
- based their furniture on English models
- used many specialized tools
- had to adjust to using new kinds of wood in New England
20. Which of the following terms does the author explain in the passage?
- "millennia"
- "joiners"
- "whittled"
- "blacksmiths"
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được củng cố thêm. Hãy tập trung vào việc đọc kỹ và xác định thông tin chính trong mỗi đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc và nắm bắt thông tin tương đối tốt. Để cải thiện, hãy chú ý hơn đến các câu hỏi suy luận và từ vựng trong ngữ cảnh.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì và thử thách bản thân với các đoạn văn phức tạp hơn.
In addition to their military role, the forts of the nineteenth century provided numerous other benefits for the American West. The establishment of these posts opened new roads and provided for the protection of daring adventurers and expeditions as well as established settlers. Forts also served as bases where enterprising entrepreneurs could bring commerce to the West, providing supplies and refreshments to soldiers as well as to pioneers. Posts like Fort Laramie provided supplies for wagon trains traveling the natural highways toward new frontiers. Some posts became stations for the pony express; still others, such as Fort Davis, were stagecoach stops for weary travelers. All of these functions, of course, suggest that the contributions of the forts to the civilization and development of the West extended beyond patrol duty.
Through the establishment of military posts, yet other contributions were made to the development of western culture. Many posts maintained libraries or reading rooms, and some - for example, Fort Davis- had schools. Post chapels provided a setting for religious services and weddings. Throughout the wilderness, post bands provided entertainment and boosted morale. During the last part of the nineteenth century, to reduce expenses, gardening was encouraged at the forts, thus making experimental agriculture another activity of the military. The military stationed at the various forts also played a role in civilian life by assisting in maintaining order, and civilian officials often called on the army for protection.
Certainly, among other significant contributions the army made to the improvement of the conditions of life was the investigation of the relationships among health, climate, and architecture. From the earliest colonial times throughout the nineteenth century, disease ranked as the foremost problem in defense. It slowed construction of forts and inhibited their military functions. Official documents from many regions contained innumerable reports of sickness that virtually incapacitated entire garrisons. In response to the problems, detailed observations of architecture and climate and their relationships to the frequency of the occurrence of various diseases were recorded at various posts across the nation by military surgeons.
Question 1
Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
- By the nineteenth century, forts were no longer used by the military.
- Surgeons at forts could not prevent outbreaks of disease.
- Forts were important to the development of the American West
- Life in nineteenth-century forts was very rough.
Question 2
The word "daring" in line 3 is closest in meaning to
- lost
- bold
- lively
- foolish
Question 3
Which of the following would a traveler be LEAST likely to obtain at Fort Laramie?
- Fresh water
- Food
- Formal clothing
- Lodging
Question 4
The word "others" in line 7 refers to
- posts
- wagon trains
- frontiers
- highways
Question 5
The word "boosted" in line 13 is closest in meaning to
- influenced
- established
- raised
- maintained
Question 6
Which of the following is the most likely inference about the decision to promote gardening at forts?
- It was expensive to import produce from far away.
- Food brought in from outside was often spoiled
- Gardening was a way to occupy otherwise idle soldiers.
- The soil near the forts was very fertile.
Question 7
According to the passage, which of the following posed the biggest obstacle to the development of military forts?
- Insufficient shelter
- Shortage of materials
- Attacks by wild animals
- Illness
Question 8
The word "inhibited" in line 22 is closest in meaning to
- involved
- exploited
- united
- hindered
Question 9
How did the military assist in the investigation of health problems?
- By registering annual birth and death rates
- By experiments with different building materials
- By maintaining records of diseases and potential causes
- By monitoring the soldiers' diets
Question 10
The author organizes the discussion of forts by
- describing their locations
- comparing their sizes
- explaining their damage to the environment
- listing their contributions to western life
Anyone who has handled a fossilized bone knows that it is usually not exactly like its modern counterpart, the most obvious difference being that it is often much heavier. Fossils often have the quality of stone rather than of organic materials, and this has led to the use of the term " petrifaction" (to bring about rock). The implication is that bone, and other tissues, have somehow been turned into stone, and this is certainly the explanation given in some texts. But it is wrong interpretation; fossils are frequently so dense because the pores and other spaces in the bone have become filled with minerals taken up from the surrounding sediments. Some fossil bones have all the interstitial spaces filled with foreign minerals, including the marrow cavity, if there is one, while others have taken up but little from their surroundings. Probably all of the minerals deposited within the bone have been recrystallized from solution by the action of water percolating thru them. The degree of mineralization appears to be determined by the nature of the environment in which the bone was deposited and not by the antiquity of the bone. For example, the black fossil bones that are so common in many parts of Florida are heavily mineralized, but they are only about 20,000 years old, whereas many of the dinosaur bones from western Canada, which are about 75 million years old, are only partially filled in. Under optimum conditions the process of mineralization probably takes thousands rather than millions of years, perhaps considerably less.
The amount of change that has occurred in fossil bone, even in bone as old as that of dinosaurs, is often remarkably small. We are therefore usually able to see the microscopic structures of the bone, including such fine details as the lacunae where the living bone cells once resided. The natural bone mineral, the hydroxyapatite, is virtually unaltered too - it has the same crystal structure as that of modern bone. Although nothing remains of the original collagen, some of its component amino acids are usually still detectable, together with amino acids of the noncollagen proteins of bone.
Question 11
What does the passage mainly discuss?
- The location of fossils in North America
- The composition of fossils
- Determining the size and weight of fossils
- Procedures for analyzing fossils
Question 12
The word "counterpart" in line 2 is closest in meaning to
- species
- version
- change
- material
Question 13
Why is fossilized bone heavier than ordinary bone?
- Bone tissue solidifies with age.
- The marrow cavity gradually fills with water
- The organic materials turn to stone
- Spaces within the bone fill with minerals.
Question 14
The word "pores" in line 6 is closest in meaning to............
- joints
- tissues
- lines
- holes
Question 15
What can be inferred about a fossil with a high degree of mineralization?
- It was exposed to large amounts of mineral-laden water throughout time.
- Mineralization was complete within one year of the animal's death.
- Many colorful crystals can be found in such a fossil.
- It was discovered in western Canada.
Question 16
Which of the following factors is most important in determining the extent of mineralization in fossil bones?
- The age of fossil
- Environmental conditions
- The location of the bone in the animal's body.
- The type of animal the bone came from
Question 17
Why does the author compare fossils found in western Canada to those found in Florida?
- To prove that a fossil's age cannot be determined by the amount of mineralization.
- To discuss the large quantity of fossils found in both places
- To suggest that fossils found in both places were the same age.
- To explain why scientists are especially interested in Canadian fossils
Question 18
The word "it" in line 20 refers to
- hydroxyapatite
- microscopic structure
- crystal structure
- modern bone
Question 19
The word "detectable" in line 22 is closest in meaning to
- sizable
- active
- moist
- apparent
Question 20
Which of the following does NOT survive in fossils?
- Noncollagen proteins
- Hydroxyapatite
- Collagen
- Amino acid
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng đọc hiểu cơ bản. Hãy tập trung vào việc xác định ý chính và tìm thông tin chi tiết trong đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc hiểu ổn định. Để cải thiện, hãy luyện tập thêm các dạng câu hỏi suy luận và từ vựng trong ngữ cảnh.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích thông tin của bạn rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này.
Listen to the audio and answer questions 1-35.
TEST 4
A: LISTENING
Directions: This is the listening test for levels from 3 to 5 of the Vietnam's 6-level Language Proficiency Test. There are three parts to the test. You will hear each part once. For each part of the test there will be time for you to look through the questions and time for you to check your answers. Write your answers on the question paper. You will have 5 minutes at the end of the test to transfer your answers onto the answer sheet.
PART 1
There are eight questions in this part. For each question there are four options and a short recording. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You now have 48 seconds to look through the questions and the options in each question.
1. What is John going to do tonight?
- swimming
- cycling
- playing football
- running
2. Which bag does the woman buy?
- square bag
- small and round bag
- a big bag
- an oval bag
3. How much did the woman pay for the apples?
- 30 pence
- 35 pence
- 40 pence
- 34 pence
4. When must the boys get on the coach?
- 12:50
- 01:30
- 02:30
- 03:20
5. What fruit do they take?
- oranges
- bananas
- grapes
- apples
6. Which present has the man bought?
- book
- bag
- gloves
- flowers
7. Where are the photographs?
- on the bookshelf
- on the TV
- on the table with the coffee cups
- in the café shop
8. What did Ben break?
- vase
- glass
- cup
- dinner bowls
PART 2
You will hear three different conversations. In each conversation there are four questions. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversations only once.
Conversation 1. You will hear a conversation between a boy, Tyrone, and a receptionist.
9. When is the picnic?
- on Thursday
- on Friday
- on Saturday
- on Sunday
10. Where is the picnic being held?
- at a park
- at the beach
- at Dave's house
- by a river
11. How many packages of hot dogs do they decide to buy?
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
12. What does Dave suggest Scott make for the picnic dessert?
- cherry pie
- chocolate cake.
- oatmeal cookies
- fudge brownies
Conversation 2: Listen and answer the following questions.
13. What does the boy want to do at the beginning of the conversation?
- go play outside
- play video games
- watch TV
- play football
14. What does the boy have to do in his bedroom?
- put away his books
- make his bed
- pick up his dirty clothes.
- clean the floor.
15. What is the father going to do while the boy is doing his household chores?
- wash the car
- paint the house.
- work in the yard
- clean the floor
16. Where will the father and son go after the housework is done?
- to a movie
- out to eat
- to a ball game
- to a shopping center.
Conversation 3: Listen and answer the following questions.
17. What time does the plane depart?
- 6:00 AM
- 7:30 AM
- 8:00 AM
- 9:00 AM
18. How will the group get to the hotel from the airport?
- They will take taxis
- They will ride the subway.
- They will be going by bus.
- They can choose either bus or subway
19. What is the group planning to do around Times Square for about an hour?
- They're going to have lunch.
- They will have time to do some shopping.
- They will see a festival.
- They will be having a tour of the area.
20. What are they going to do after dinner?
- The group is going to watch a musical.
- They will catch an exciting movie.
- They will be attending a Broadway play.
- They will see a football match.
PART 3
You will hear three different talks or lectures. In each talk or lecture there are five questions. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You will hear the talks or lectures only once.
Talk/Lecture 1. You will hear a man called Frank, talking on the radio about looking for ships that sank at sea long ago.
21. The first old ship which Frank found was
- covered by rocks
- older than he first thought
- easy to find
- had a lot of gold
22. Why did Frank find the ships so quickly?
- reads history books.
- is a professional driver.
- his friends helped him.
- uses the latest equipment.
23. What does Frank say about the ship called The Seabird?
- It was so expensive.
- It was built in 1859.
- It sank in a storm.
- It was badly made.
24. What did Frank say about his wedding ring?
- was made from gold he found himself.
- it was given by someone
- is worth 88,000 pounds.
- was found by a friend.
25. How did Frank learn to dive?
- by joining a diving club
- by asking the dive tutor
- by teaching himself
- by going on a diving holiday
Talk/Lecture 2. You will hear an interview with a woman called Rachel who is taking about the shows she puts on for children.
26. The Black Rock Caves have been home for....
- Two million years
- A million year
- A half a million year
- centuries
27. When can the cave attract the tourists?
- from April to October
- April
- October
- August
28. Salter house was built in
- 1765s
- 1756s
- 1928s
- 1982s
29. The things that are worth to visit in Salter house is
- the furniture
- the paintings
- the enormous meals
- the kitchen
30. What should tourists do as visiting The Old Port?
- take an old trek to visit the riverside
- buy different traditional costumes
- try sweets made in the Tea Shop
- visit the village factory
Talk/Lecture 3. Listen to a lecture about culture study.
31. What does the professor say about the elements in the body?
- Ideally, these should be different amounts of each.
- The amount of each in the body is not very important.
- They can be out of balance.
- Different people have different elements.
32. According to the professor, what are yin and yang?
- They are opposite forces.
- They are what make a person healthy.
- They are four different elements.
- They are the land and the ocean.
33. What does the professor say about yin and yang?
- They are always in balance.
- They are always changing.
- They don't need to be in balance.
- They compare with each other.
34. According to the Chinese, five elements of Yin and Yang are studied for the work of
- the body and spirit
- body, mind and spirit work
- balance and harmony
35. Why does the professor says "Yin and Yang should be considered as opposite forces like, uhh, like land and ocean, for example"?
- To correct something she said earlier
- To explain a term she just introduced
- To explain what is wrong with a particular theory
- To remind the students of something discussed earlier
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Cần cố gắng (Dưới B1): Kỹ năng nghe của bạn cần được cải thiện nhiều. Hãy bắt đầu với các bài nghe ngắn, đơn giản và tăng dần độ khó.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Khá tốt (Trình độ B1): Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ở mức cơ bản và có thể nắm bắt các ý chính trong các cuộc hội thoại quen thuộc. Hãy luyện tập thêm để cải thiện tốc độ và khả năng nghe chi tiết.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Xuất sắc (Trình độ B2-C1): Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng nghe của bạn rất tốt. Bạn có thể hiểu được các bài nói dài, phức tạp và theo kịp các lập luận tinh vi.
B: READING
Time permitted: 60 minutes
Number of questions: 40
Directions: In this section you will read FOUR different passages. Each one is followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
Questions 1-10
In the last third of the nineteenth century a new housing form was quietly being developed. In 1869 the Stuyvesant, considered New York's first apartment house was built on East Eighteenth Street. The building was financed by the developer Rutherfurd Stuyvesant and designed by Richard Morris Hunt, the first American architect to graduate from the Ecole des Beaux Arts in Paris. Each man had lived in Paris, and each understood the economics and social potential of this Parisian housing form. But the Stuyvesant was at best a limited success. In spite of Hunt's inviting fagade, the living space was awkwardly arranged. Those who could afford them were quite content to remain in the more sumptuous, single-family homes, leaving the Stuyvesant to young married couples and bachelors.
The fundamental problem with the Stuyvesant and the other early apartment buildings that quickly followed, in the 1870's and early 1880's was that they were confined to the typical New York building lot. That lot was a rectangular area 25 feet wide by 100 feet deep - a shape perfectly suited for a row house. The lot could also accommodate a rectangular tenement, though it could not yield the square, well-lighted, and logically arranged rooms that great apartment buildings require. But even with the awkward interior configurations of the early apartment buildings, the idea caught on. It met the needs of a large and growing population that wanted something better than tenements but could not afford or did not want row houses.
So while the city's newly emerging social leadership commissioned their mansions, apartment houses and hotels began to sprout in multiple lots, thus breaking the initial space constraints. In the closing decades of the nineteenth century, large apartment houses began dotting the developed portions of New York City, and by the opening decades of the twentieth century, spacious buildings, such as the Dakota and the Ansonia finally transcended the tight confinement of row house building lots. From there it was only a small step to building luxury apartment houses on the newly created Park Avenue, right next to the fashionable Fifth Avenue shopping area.
1. The new housing form discussed in the passage refers to
- single-family homes
- apartment buildings
- row houses
- hotels
2. The word "inviting" in line 6 is closest in meaning to
- open
- encouraging
- attractive
- asking
3. Why was the Stuyvesant a limited success?
- The arrangement of the rooms was not convenient.
- Most people could not afford to live there.
- There were no shopping areas nearby.
- It was in a crowded neighborhood.
4. The word "sumptuous" in line 8 is closest in meaning to
- luxurious
- unique
- modern
- distant
5. It can be inferred that the majority of people who lived in New York's first apartments were
- highly educated
- unemployed
- wealthy
- young
6. It can be inferred that the typical New York building lot of the 1870's and 1880's looked MOST like which of the following?

- A
- B
- C
- D
7. It can be inferred that a New York apartment building in the 1870's and 1880's had all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
- Its room arrangement was not logical.
- It was rectangular.
- It was spacious inside.
- It had limited light.
8. The word "yield" in line 13 is closest in meaning to
- harvest
- surrender
- amount
- provide
9. Why did the idea of living in an apartment become popular in the late 1800's?
- Large families needed housing with sufficient space.
- Apartments were preferable to tenements and cheaper than row houses.
- The city officials of New York wanted housing that was centrally located.
- The shape of early apartments could accommodate a variety of interior designs.
10. The author mentions the Dakota and the Ansonia in line 22 because
- they are examples of large, well designed apartment buildings
- their design is similar to that of row houses
- they were built on a single building lot
- they are famous hotels
Questions 11-20
A snowfall consists of myriads of minute ice crystals that fall to the ground in the form of frozen precipitation. The formation of snow begins with these ice crystals in the subfreezing strata of the middle and upper atmosphere when there is an adequate supply of moisture present. At the core of every ice crystal is a minuscule nucleus, a solid particle of matter around which moisture condenses and freezes. Liquid water droplets floating in the supercooled atmosphere and free ice crystals cannot coexist within the same cloud, since the vapor pressure of ice is less than that of water. This enables the ice crystals to rob the liquid droplets of their moisture and grow continuously. The process can be very rapid, quickly creating sizable ice crystals, some of which adhere to each other to create a cluster of ice crystals or a snowflake. Simple flakes possess a variety of beautiful forms, usually hexagonal, though the symmetrical shapes reproduced in most microscope photography of snowflakes are not usually found in actual snowfalls. Typically, snowflakes in actual snowfall consists of broken fragments and clusters of adhering ice crystals.
For a snowfall to continue once it starts, there must be a constant inflow of moisture to supply the nuclei. This moisture is supplied by the passage of an airstream over a water surface and its subsequent lifting to higher regions of the atmosphere. The Pacific Ocean is the source of moisture for most snowfalls west of the Rocky Mountains, while the Gulf of Mexico and the Atlantic Ocean feed water vapor into the air currents over the central and eastern sections of the United States. Other geographical features also can be the source of moisture for some snowstorms. For example, areas adjacent to the Great Lakes experience their own unique lake-effect storms, employing a variation of the process on a local scale. In addition, mountainous section or rising terrain can initiate snowfalls by the geographical lifting of a moist airstream.
11. Which of the following questions does the author answer in the first paragraph?
- Why are snowflakes hexagonal?
- What is the optimum temperature for snow?
- In which months does most snow fall?
- How are snowflakes formed?
12. The word "minute" in line 1 is closest in meaning to
- tiny
- quick
- clear
- sharp
13. What is at the center of an ice crystal?
- A small snowflake
- A nucleus
- A drop of water
- A hexagon
14. The word "adhere" in line 8 is closest in meaning to
- belong
- relate
- stick
- speed
15. What is the main topic of the second paragraph?
- How ice crystals form
- How moisture affects temperature
- What happens when ice crystals melt
- Where the moisture to supply the nuclei comes from
16. The word "it" in line 13 refers to
- snowfall
- snowflake
- cluster
- moisture
17. What is necessary for a snowfall to persist?
- A decrease in the number of snowflakes
- Lowered vapor pressure in ice crystals
- A continuous infusion of moisture
- A change in the direction of the airstream
18. How do lake-effect snowstorms form?
- Water temperature drop below freezing.
- Moisture rises from a lake into the airstream.
- Large quantities of wet air come off a nearby mountain.
- Millions of ice crystals form on the surface of a large lake.
19. The word "initiate" in line 20 is closest in meaning to
- enhance
- alter
- increase
- begin
20. Which of the following could account for the lack of snowfall in a geographical location close to mountains and a major water source?
- Ground temperatures below the freezing point
- Too much moisture in the air
- Too much wind off the mountains
- Atmospheric temperatures above the freezing point.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại kỹ năng đọc hiểu và tìm ý chính trong đoạn văn. Hãy luyện tập thường xuyên hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc và nắm bắt thông tin tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy chú ý đến các câu hỏi suy luận và từ vựng.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này.
Questions 1-10
Social parasitism involves one species relying on another to raise its young. Among vertebrates, the best known social parasites are such birds as cuckoos and cowbirds; the female lays an egg in a nest belonging to another species and leaves it for the host to rear.
The dulotic species of ants, however, are the supreme social parasites. Consider, for example, the unusual behavior of ants belonging to the genus Polyergus. All species of this ant have lost the ability to care for themselves. The workers do not forage for food. feed their brood or queen, or even dean their own nest. To compensate for these deficits, Polyergus has become specialized at obtaining workers from the related genus Formica to do these chores.
In a raid, several thousand Polyergus workers will travel up to 500 feet in search of a Formica nest, penetrate it, drive off the queen and tier workers, capture the pupal brood, and transport it back to their nest. The captured brood is then reared by the resident Formica workers until the developing pupae emerge to add to the Formica population, which maintains the mixed-species nest Th e Formica workers forage for food and give it to colony members of both species. They also remove wastes and excavate new chambers as the population increases.
The true extent of the Polyergus ants' dependence on the Formica becomes apparent when the worker population grows too large for the existing nest. Formica scouts locate a new nesting site, return to the mixed-species colony, and recruit additional Formica nest mates. During a period that may last seven days, the Formica workers carry to the new nest all the Polyergus eggs, larvae, and pupae, every Polyergus adult, and even the Polyergus queen.
Of the approximately 8,000 species of ants in the world, all 5 species of Polyergus and some 200 species in other genera have evolved some degree of parasitic relationship with other ants.
Question 1
Which of the following statements best represents the main idea of the passage?
- Ants belonging to the genus Formica are incapable of performing certain tasks.
- The genus Polyergus is quite similar to the genus Formica.
- Ants belonging to the genus Polyergus have an unusual relationship with ants belonging to the genus Formica.
- Polyergus ants frequently leave their nests to build new colonies.
Question 2
The word "raise" in line 1 is closest in meaning to...............
- rear
- lift
- collect
- increase
Question 3
The author mentions cuckoos and cowbirds in line 2 because they
- share their nests with each other
- are closely related species
- raise the young of other birds
- are social parasites
Question 4
The word "it" in line 3 refers to
- species
- nest
- egg
- female
Question 5
What does the author mean by stating that "The dulotic species of ants... are the supreme social parasites" (line 4)?
- The Polyergus are more highly developed than the Formica.
- The Formica have developed specialized roles.
- The Polyergus are heavily dependent on the Formica.
- The Formica do not reproduce rapidly enough to care for themselves
Question 6
Which of the following is a task that an ant of the genus Polyergus might do?
- Look for food.
- Raid another nest
- Care for the young.
- Clean its own nest.
Question 7
The word "excavate" in line 14 is closest in meaning to
- find
- clean
- repair
- dig
Question 8
The word "recruit" in line 18 is closest in meaning to
- create
- enlist
- endure
- capture
Question 9
What happens when a mixed colony of Polyergus and Formica ants becomes too large?
- The Polyergus workers enlarge the existing nest.
- The captured Formica workers return to their original nest.
- The Polyergus and the Formica build separate nests.
- The Polyergus and the Formica move to a new nest.
Question 10
According to the information in the passage, all of the following terms refer to ants belonging to the genus Formica EXCEPT the
- dulotic species of ants
- captured brood
- developing pupae
- worker population
Questions 11-20
The Winterthur Museum is a collection and a house. There are many museums devoted to the decorative arts and many house museums, but rarely in the United States is a great collection displayed in a great country house. Passing through successive generations of a single family, Winterthur has been a private estate for more than a century. Even after the extensive renovations made to it between 1929 and 1931, the house remained a family residence. This fact is of importance to the atmosphere and effect of the museum. The impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the visitor; the rooms look as if they were vacated only a short while ago whether by the original owners of the furniture or the most recent residents of the house can be a matter of personal interpretation. Winterthur remains, then, a house in which a collection of furniture and architectural elements has been assembled. Like an English country house, it is an organic structure; the house, as well as the collection and manner of displaying it to the visitor, has changed over the years. The changes have coincided with developing concepts of the American arts, increased knowledge on the part of collectors and students, and a progression toward the achievement of a historical effect in period-room displays. The rooms at Winterthur have followed this current, yet still retained the character of a private house.
The concept of a period room as a display technique has developed gradually over the years in an effort to present works of art in a context that would show them to greater effect and would give them more meaning for the viewer. Comparable to the habitat group in a natural history museum, the period room represents the decorative arts in a lively and interesting manner and provides an opportunity to assemble objects related by style, date, or place of manufacture.
Question 11
What does the passage mainly discuss?
- The reason that Winterthur was redesigned
- Elements that make Winterthur an unusual museum
- How Winterthur compares to English country houses
- Historical furniture contained in Winterthur
Question 12
The phrase "devoted to" in line 1 is closest in meaning to
- surrounded by
- specializing in
- successful with
- sentimental about
Question 13
What happened at Winterthur between 1929 and 1931?
- The owners moved out.
- The house was repaired.
- The old furniture was replaced.
- The estate became a museum.
Question 14
What does the author mean by stating "The impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the visitor" (line 6)?
- Winterthur is very old.
- Few people visit Winterthur.
- Winterthur does not look like a typical museum.
- The furniture at Winterthur looks comfortable.
Question 15
The word "assembled" in line 9 is closest in meaning to
- summoned
- appreciated
- brought together
- fundamentally changed
Question 16
The word "it" in line 10 refers to
- Winterthur
- collection
- English country house
- visitor
Question 17
The word "developing" in line 11 is closest in meaning to
- traditional
- exhibiting
- informative
- evolving
Question 18
According to the passage, objects in a period room are related by all of the following EXCEPT .........
- date
- style
- place of manufacture
- past ownership
Question 19
What is the relationship between the two paragraphs in the passage?
- The second paragraph explains a term that was mentioned in the first paragraph.
- Each paragraph describes a different approach to the display of objects in a museum.
- The second paragraph explains a philosophy of art appreciation that contrasts with the philosophy explained in the first paragraph.
- Each paragraph describes a different historical period.
Question 20
Where in the passage does the author explain why displays at Winterthur have changed?
- lines 1-3
- lines 4-6
- lines 5-7
- lines 9-12
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần luyện tập thêm: Bạn cần đọc kỹ hơn để nắm bắt ý chính và các chi tiết quan trọng trong bài đọc.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có kỹ năng đọc hiểu tốt. Hãy tiếp tục rèn luyện để tăng tốc độ và độ chính xác khi làm bài.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng.
TEST 5
A: LISTENING
Directions: This is the listening test for levels from 3 to 5 of the Vietnam's 6-level Language Proficiency Test. There are three parts to the test. You will hear each part once. For each part of the test there will be time for you to look through the questions and time for you to check your answers. Write your answers on the question paper. You will have 5 minutes at the end of the test to transfer your answers onto the answer sheet.
PART 1
There are eight questions in this part. For each question there are four options and a short recording. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You now have 48 seconds to look through the questions and the options in each question.
1. What time is it?
- 02.10
- 02.20
- 02.30
- 03.20
2. What's Michelle going to read?
- book
- letter
- newspaper
- magazine
3. How much did the tickets cost?
- $19
- $90
- $99
- $9
4. What is the man going to buy?
- sunglasses
- something to read
- pills
- food
5. Which dress is Kate talking about?
- a dress with no button
- a dress with many buttons
- a dress with collar
- a dress with no collar
6. When will Jane meet them?
- 08:00
- 08:30
- 08:45
- 03:15
7. Which morning activity is for beginners?
- windsurfing
- swimming
- sailing
- running
8. Which painting does the woman decide to buy?
- a painting with boats
- a painting with flowers
- a painting with horses
- a painting with white clouds
PART 2
You will hear three different conversations. In each conversation there are four questions. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversations only once.
Conversation 1. You will hear a conversation between Matthew and his mother
9. Why doesn't his mother lend him her car?
- Because her car doesn't work well today
- Because he can't drive
- Because she needs the car
- Because he can walk
10. What will Matthew do after class?
- move his books
- move his flat
- help his friend
- repair his car
11. When is his mother's meeting?
- Thursday 19th
- Friday 9th
- Wednesday 9th
- Not discussed
12. What is true about the conversation?
- Matthew forgot to ask his mother about her car
- His mother refused to lend him her car.
- His mother agrees to take him to school by car
- This problem is due to his mother's mistake
Conversation 2. Listen to an interview about indoor skydiving.
13. Where does he play this sport?
- in a wind tunnel
- from an aeroplane outdoor
- in a park
- from a high hill
14. What is the name of the sport center?
- Vertical Tunnel center
- Extreme sports center
- Runaway
- Adventure sports center
15. What is it like to be in the wind tunnel?
- you stand on bars
- you stay afloat
- your hair is dried
- you fly up high.
16. How dangerous is this sport?
- Glass might break and hurt you
- You suffer from small injuries
- You might fly off the tunnel
- You can't stop flying up
Conversation 3. Listen to a conversation between a director of study in an English language center and a student representative talking about their self-access center.
17. What is the main topic of the conversation?
- to know how students used the center
- to know what to do with the center
- to talk about the effectiveness of the library
- to learn how to use the library effectively
18. What is the main problem of the center?
- too many resources
- slow computers
- lack of valuable resource
- lack of computers
19. The director complains that students are using computers for
- looking for personal resources
- relocating documents
- reading their emails
- learning computer skills
20. What are they likely to do with the center?
- move it to the library
- purchase more equipment
- ask teacher to come to the center
- ask students to stop using emails
PART 3
You will hear three different talks or lectures. In each talk or lecture there are five questions. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You will hear the talks or lectures only once.
Talk/Lecture 1. You'll hear part of a talk about dolls
21. What is the main purpose of the talk?
- To describe how the man's favorite dolls look like.
- To explain how dolls used to look like in the twelfth century.
- To compare the differences in all doll examples in the museum.
- To explain how dolls were made differently in times
22. The dolls that the man is interested in
- Existed from the twentieth century.
- Existed from the seventeenth century.
- Existed from the eighteenth century.
- Existed from the nineteenth century.
23. At the beginning of the twentieth century, dolls were
- Babies.
- Adults.
- Elderly.
- Males.
24. What makes the dolls in the seventeenth century special?
- They existed fairly early.
- They were made from solid wood.
- They are very expensive today.
- Their decorations are original.
25. What can you do with the nineteenth-century dolls?
- Buy them with thousands of pounds.
- Take off their hair.
- Replace their hair with real hair.
- See the maker's name on the body.
Talk/Lecture 2. Listen to a man called Stephen Mills talking to a group of people about a trip to India to see tigers.
26. When is the best time to see the tigers?
- November
- October
- September
- The following day
27. How long will they be in the park?
- Twenty days.
- Eighteen days.
- Ten days
- No information
28. What is arranged to make sure the visitors are comfortable?
- Meals.
- Transportation.
- Accommodation
- Schedule.
29. What is Stephen Mill's profession?
- Photographer.
- Tour guide.
- Traveller.
- Artist.
30. What is not included in the program?
- Going sightseeing in Delhi.
- Going shopping in Delhi.
- Breakfast on the last day.
- Lunch on the last day.
Talk/Lecture 3. You'll hear a talk on local radio about a children's theme park.
31. Simon's idea for a theme park came from
- his childhood hobby.
- his interest in landscape design.
- his visit to another park
- his wife's idea.
32. When they started, the family decided to open the park only when
- The weather was expected to be good.
- There were not many people in the neighborhood.
- The children weren't at school.
- There were fewer farming commitments.
33. Since opening, the park has had
- 50,000 visitors.
- 1,000,000 visitors.
- 5000 visitors.
- 1,500,000 visitors.
34. What did their children love?
- Trains.
- Theme park.
- Farm work.
- Wet weather.
35. The park today is
- Closed on holidays.
- Opened all year.
- Closed every two months.
- Opened on weekdays.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng nghe hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy tập trung vào việc nghe các đoạn hội thoại ngắn và làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi cơ bản.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng nghe và nắm bắt thông tin tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy luyện tập nghe các đoạn nói dài và chú ý đến các chi tiết nhỏ.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng nghe hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
Directions: In this section you will read FOUR different passages. Each one is followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is the main political and economic organization for that area. The leaders summit is their last meeting before the launch of the ASEAN Economic Community, or AEC, on December 31.
The AEC will be equivalent to the world's seventh largest economy. It was set up to create a highly competitive single market and production area. Organizers hope it will ease the movement of capital, goods, investment, services and skilled labor across ASEAN countries. The goal is to make the whole area more competitive and economically successful. But, some business leaders have low expectations for the ASEAN summit. Anthony Nelson is a director at the US-ASEAN Business Council in Washington. He believes that security will be an important issue at the meetings, especially after the terrorist attacks in Paris last week.
"The November summit includes the East Asia Summit, which primarily focuses on political and security issues. So that's going to be a big part of what is actually going on around the summit. A lot of the work that business gets really involved in tends to happen around the ASEAN economic ministers' meeting in August." But, the AEC may have only limited influence on business activity when it comes into being next year. Experts expect little to change at first because there is still much to be done.
"The ASEAN single window, which is a customs project, is still very much a work in progress. But beginning next year they will start limited trials with five of the 10 ASEAN countries. And there have been past mutual recognition agreements for credentials of skilled professionals. But there's still a lot of work to be done in terms of actually implementing those agreements." Some critics say the AEC will mainly help businesses, not the majority of people in Southeast Asia. Earlier this year, the ASEAN Civil Society Conference and ASEAN Peoples' Forum expressed concern about regional economic integration. In a statement, the group said such a move would mean unequal and unsustainable economic growth. This, it said, would result "in worsening poverty and inequalities of wealth." Jerald Joseph is co-chair of the ASEAN People's Forum. He says people crossing borders to find employment need more protections. He said: "Cross-border migrant workers don't have the same level of protection or interest in the whole negotiation. So that's a little bit of a pity, a wasted chance, if it's not reflected in the coming document." The 27th ASEAN Summit includes the organization's partners. Nations including China, India, Japan and the United States are to attend.
1. ASEAN is the main political and economic organization in...........
- East Asia
- Southeast Asia
- West Asia
- North Asia
2. What does the word "It" in paragraph 2 refer to?
- ASEAN
- Organizer
- AEC
- Business Council
3. According to Anthony Nelson, what is the important issue at the meetings?
- Security
- Climate change
- Business
- Economy
4. According to the passage, what aspect tends to happen around the ASEAN economic ministers?
- Security
- Climate change
- Business
- Economy
5. According to the passage, how many countries in the ASEAN will start limited trials?
- 3
- 5
- 7
- 10
6. The word "credentials" in line 19 can be replaced by
- letters
- salutations
- invitations
- certificates
7. The word "implementing" in line 20 is closest in meaning to
- carrying out
- producing
- concentrating
- focusing
8. The word "integration" in line 23 can be replaced by
- utilization
- contribution
- combination
- separation
9. According to the passage, what would delay the increase of the economy?
- the recession
- the poverty
- the move
- the employment
10. According to the passage, who require more assurance?
- travellers
- immigrants
- residents
- tourists
PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20
In 1969, a key milestone in space travel was reached when Neil Armstrong set foot on the moon. In 2001, another landmark event took place when the first civilian traveled into space as a paying tourist. As a teenager, Dennis Tito dreamed of visiting outer space. As a young man, he aspired to become an astronaut and earned a bachelor's and a master's degree in aerospace engineering. However, Tito did not have all the qualities necessary to become a professional astronaut; so instead, he went to work as a space engineer in one of NASA's laboratories for five years. Later, Tito set up his own financial investment company and, eventually, he became a multi-millionaire. Later in life, the ex rocket engineer, still passionate about space travel, began looking into ways to make a trip into space.
In the early 1990s, the Soviet Space Agency was offering tickets for a visit to the Mir space station to anyone who could afford it. Tito jumped at the chance for this once-in-a- lifetime experience. Due to political and economic changes in the former Soviet Union, however, Tito's trip was postponed and later, Mir was decommissioned. In 2001, Tito's dream was finally came true when he paid a rumored $20 million and took off aboard a SOYUZ rocket to deliver supplies to the International Space Station, a joint venture between the space agencies of Japan, Canada, Europe, Russia, and the U.S.
In preparation for the trip, Tito trained at the Gagarin Cosmonauts Training Center at Star City in Russia. There, he underwent eight months of physical fitness training, weightless simulations, and a variety of other exercises to prepare him for space travel. Although the Russians believed that Tito was adequately prepared for the trip, NASA thought otherwise. Dennis Tito had to sign an agreement with international space officials taking financial responsibility for any equipment he damaged or broke on his trip. He was also barred from entering any part of the space station owned by the U.S. unless escorted.
Although Tito made history and paved the way for the future of space tourism, factors such as cost, and the amount of training required, stand in the way of space vacations becoming an option for most people in the near future. In spite of this, Japanese and North American market data shows that there is definite public interest in space travel. In a 1993 survey of 3,030 Japanese, 80 percent of those under the age of forty said they would like to visit space at least once. Seventy percent of this group would pay up to three month's salary for the trip. In 1995, 1,020 households in North America were surveyed and of those, 60 percent were interested were under forty years of age. Just over 45 percent said they would pay three month's salary, around 18 percent said they would pay six month's salary, and nearly 11 percent would pay a year's salary. Two - thirds of those who want to visit space would like to do so several times. Since the nature of this type of travel makes it hazardous to humans, it would have to be restricted to those who are physically fit and able to take responsibility for the risks involved.
11. According to the passage, what was the main event in 1969?
- Scientists planned to travel to space.
- People started to concern space travel.
- The dream of space travel became true.
- Neil Armstrong was ready for heading to the moon.
12. When did Dennis Tito dream of becoming an astronaut?
- When he was at kindergarten.
- When he was at primary school.
- When he was at his teen.
- When he was at university.
13. Dennis Tito made the first trip as a space tourist
- in the late '60s.
- in the early '90s.
- this century.
- in the late '50s.
14. Which of the following is NOT true about Dennis Tito?
- He has an advanced degree in aerospace engineering.
- He is now an astronaut for NASA.
- He eventually became a very wealthy man.
- He used to dream of travelling to outer space.
15. Tito's first trip into space was with __________ to __________
- the Russian/ the International Space Station.
- the Americans/SOYUZ
- members of the former Soviet Union/ the Mir space station
- the Japanese agency
16. Which of the following describes NASA's feelings about Tito's trip into space?
- extremely proud
- somewhat eager
- very concerned
- disappointed
17. According to Japanese survey, which of the following is true?
- Eighty percent of all those interviewed would be interested in travelling to space.
- Some people would pay a quarter of their annual salary to visit space.
- Only people under the age of forty are interested in space travel.
- Seventy percent of Japanese would pay three quarters of their annual salary to visit space.
18. According to a North American survey on space travel, which is true?
- Seventy - five percent of those surveyed would be interested in travelling to space.
- Most people would pay a year's salary to visit space as a tourist.
- Most of the people interested in space travel were under the age of forty.
- Nearly sixty percent of those surveyed were interested in a vacation in space travel.
19. According to the passage, who did not believe that Tito was trained well enough for the trip to space?
- Russian Training Center.
- Japanese Training Center.
- European Training Center.
- NASA
20. Which of the following would probably prevent you from becoming a space tourist in the near future?
- health
- wealth
- youth
- age
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Điểm số cho thấy bạn cần củng cố thêm kỹ năng đọc hiểu và tìm kiếm thông tin chi tiết trong đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc và hiểu các ý chính. Hãy luyện tập thêm để tăng tốc độ và độ chính xác.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất tốt. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này.
PASSAGE 3 – Questions 1-10
During the heyday of the railroads, when America's rail system provided the bulk of the country's passenger and freight transportation, various types of railroad cars were in service to accomplish the varied tasks handled by the railroads. One type of car that was not available for public use prior to the Civil War, however, was a sleeping car; ideas for sleeping cars abounded at the time, but these ideas were unworkable. It unfortunately took the death of a president to make the sleeping car a viable reality.
Cabinet - maker George M. Pullman had recognized the demand for sleeping cars and had worked on developing experimental models of sleeping cars in the decade leading up to the Civil War. However, in spite of the fact that he had made successful test runs on the Chicago and Alton Railroads with his models, he was unable to sell his idea because his models were too wide and too high for existing train station and bridges. In 1863, after spending time working as a storekeeper in a Colorado mining town, he invested his savings of twenty thousand dollars, a huge fortune at that time and all the money that he had in the world, in a luxurious sleeping car that he named the Pioneer. Pullman and friend Ben Field built the Pioneer on the site of the present - day Chicago Union Station. For two years, however; the Pioneer sat on a railroad siding, useless because it could not fit through train stations and over bridges.
Following President Lincoln's assassination in 1865, the state of Illinois, Lincoln's birthplace, wanted to transport the presidential casket in the finest fashion possible. The Pullman Pioneer was the most elegant car around; in order to make the Pullman part of the presidential funeral train in its run from Springfield to Chicago, the state cut down station platforms and raised bridges in order to accommodate the luxurious railway car. The Pullman car greatly impressed the funeral party, which included Lincoln's successor as president, General Ulysses S. Grant, and Grant later requested the Pioneer for a trip from Detroit to Chicago. To satisfy Grant's request for the Pioneer, the Michigan Central Railroad made improvements on its line to accommodate the wide car, and soon other railroads followed. George Pullman founded the Pullman Palace Car Company in partnership with financier Andrew Carnegie and eventually became a millionaire.
Pullman cars were normally a dark "Pullman green", although some were painted in the host railroad's colors. The cars carried individual names, but usually did not carry visible numbers. In the 1920s, the Pullman Company went through a series of restructuring steps, which in the end resulted in a parent company, Pullman incorporated, controlling the Pullman Company (which owned and operated sleeping cars) and the Pullman - Standard Car Manufacturing Company.
1. Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage?
- America's railroads used to provide much of the country's transportation.
- President Lincoln's assassination in 1865 shocked the nation.
- George Pullman was the only one to come up with the idea for a sleeping car.
- Pullman's idea for a sleeping car became workable after Lincoln's death.
2. A "heyday" in line 1 is most probably a
- time for harvest.
- a period with low prices.
- a period of great success.
- a type of railroad schedule.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that before the Civil War, sleeping cars
- were used abundantly.
- were thought to be a good idea.
- were only used privately.
- were used by presidents.
4. What is the main idea of paragraph 2?
- Pullman had been successful in selling his sleeping cars.
- Though Pullman had been successful in test runs with his sleeping cars model; it could not be suitable with the transportation in Chicago.
- Pullman had recognized the demand for sleeping cars.
- Pullman had invested much money on developing the sleeping cars.
5. What was the initial problem that made Pullman's card unusable?
- They were too large.
- They were too expensive.
- They were too slow.
- They were too unusual.
6. What is stated in the passage about George Pullman?
- He once had a job in a store.
- He always lived in Chicago.
- He worked in a mine.
- He saved money for his project.
7. What is true about the sleeping cars?
- The experimental models of sleeping cars had not been successful until 1863.
- The Pioneer did not cost Pullman a fortune.
- The Pioneer was considered to be the most charming cars in comparison with others.
- The Pullman car was extremely beneficial because of its fitness through train station and bridges.
8. Why did the state of Illinois want to use the Pullman in Lincoln's funeral train?
- It was superior to other cars.
- It was the only railroad car that could make it from Springfield to Chicago.
- Ulysses S. Grant requested it.
- The Pullman Palace Car Company was a major Illinois business.
9. It can be inferred from the passage that the Michigan Central Railroad
- was owned by George Pullman.
- controlled the railroad tracks between Detroit and Chicago.
- was the only railroad company to accommodate wider cars.
- was the sole manufacturer of the Pioneer.
10. This passage would most likely be assigned in which of the following courses?
- Engineering
- Political science
- Finance
- History
PASSAGE 4 – Questions 11-20
Garbage cans are not magical portals. Trash does not disappear when you toss it in a can. Yet, the average American throws away an estimated 1,600 pounds of waste each year. If there are no magic garbage fairies, where does all that trash go? There are four methods to managing waste: recycling, land-filling, composting, and incinerating. Each method has its strengths and weakness. Let's take a quick look at each.
Recycling is the process of turning waste into new materials. For example, used paper can be turned into paperboard, which can be used to make book covers. Recycling can reduce pollution, save materials, and lower energy use. Yet, some argue that recycling wastes energy. They believe that collecting, processing, and converting waste uses more energy than it saves. Still, most people agree that recycling is better for the planet than land-filling.
Land-filling is the oldest method of managing waste. In its simplest form, land-filling is when people bury garbage in a hole. Over time the practice of land-filling has advanced. Garbage is compacted before it is thrown into the hole. In this way more garbage can fit in each landfill. Large liners are placed in the bottom of landfills so that toxic garbage juice doesn't get into the ground water. Sadly; these liners don't always work. Landfills may pollute the local water supply. Not to mention that all of that garbage stinks. Nobody wants to live next to a landfill. This makes it hard to find new locations for landfills.
As landfill space increases, interest in composting grows. Composting is when people pile up organic matter, such as food waste, and allows it to decompose. The product of this decomposition is compost. Compost can be added to the soil to make the soil richer and better for growing crops. While composting is easy to do onsite somewhere, like home or school, it's hard to do after the garbage gets all mixed up. This is because plastic and other inorganic materials must be removed from the compost pile or they will pollute the soil. There's a lot of plastic in garbage, which makes it hard to compost on a large scale.
One thing that is easier to do is burning garbage. There are two main ways to incinerate waste. The first is to create or harvest a fuel from the waste, such as methane gas, and burn the fuel. The second is to burn the waste directly. The heat from the incineration process can boil water, which can power steam generators. Unfortunately, burning garbage pollutes the air. Also, some critics worry that incinerators destroy valuable resources that could be recycled.
Usually, the community which you live manages waste. Once you put your garbage in that can, what happens to it is beyond your control. But you can make choices while it is still in your possession. You can choose to recycle, you can choose to compost, or you can choose to let someone else deal with it. The choice is yours.
11. Which best explains why the author begins the text by talking about magical garbage fairies?
- He is putting a common misconception to rest.
- He is trying to get the reader's attention.
- He is addressing his concern in a serious way.
- He is supporting his argument with evidence.
12. Which best expresses the meaning of the word "compacted" as it is used in the third paragraph?
- Garbage is burned before it is thrown in a hole.
- Garbage is put in trucks before it is thrown in a hole.
- Garbage is crushed smaller before it is thrown in a hole.
- Garbage is put in a can before it is thrown in a hole.
13. Which was NOT cited in the third paragraph as an issue with land-filling?
- Landfills are smelly.
- Usable materials are wasted in landfills.
- Landfills may pollute the water supply.
- It is difficult to find locations for landfills.
14. Which best expresses the main idea of the fourth paragraph?
- Landfills take up a lot of space.
- Composting is good for the soil but it can be difficult.
- The process of composting is very complicated and scientific.
- There is a lot of plastic garbage in landfills.
15. Which best defines the meaning of incineration as it is used in the text?
- To bury waste materials in a large hole
- To allow waste products to decompose and become fertilizer
- To burn waste materials and harvest the energy
- To turn waste materials into products like book covers
16. Which conclusion could be supported with text from the passage?
- Each method of waste management has its drawbacks.
- Recycling is without a doubt the best way to handle waste.
- Incineration is the best way to process waste.
- All large cities should create massive compost piles.
17. Which best expresses the author's main purpose in writing this?
- To convince readers to recycle and compost
- To persuade readers that recycling is a waste of resources
- To compare and contrast recycling and land-filling
- To inform readers of methods of waste management
18. Which is NOT included in this text?
- A description of how trash is collected
- A description of the uses of compost
- A description of the two methods of incinerating trash
- A description of how landfills have advanced over time
19. Which best explains why composting is not feasible on a large scale?
- People wouldn't want to touch all of that gross rotting food.
- It would smell too bad in densely populated cities.
- It would attract rodents that would spread disease.
- Plastic would get into the compost and turn it into a pollutant.
20. Which title best expresses the main idea of this text?
- The Magic of Recycling: Bringing Back What Was Once Lost
- Methods of Waste Management: Pros and Cons
- Recycling Land-filling or Composting: Which is Best For You?
- Do Your Part: How to Save the Earth by Recycling and Composting
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng đọc hiểu cơ bản. Hãy luyện tập thêm để cải thiện khả năng nắm bắt ý chính và thông tin chi tiết.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc phân tích các câu hỏi suy luận và tìm ý nghĩa của từ trong ngữ cảnh.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích thông tin của bạn rất tốt. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này.
Listen to the audio and answer questions 1-35.
TEST 6 - A: LISTENING
Directions: This is the listening test for levels from 3 to 5 of the Vietnam's 6-level Language Proficiency Test. There are three parts to the test. You will hear each part once. For each part of the test there will be time for you to look through the questions and time for you to check your answers.
PART 1
There are eight questions in this part. For each question there are four options and a short recording. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Question 1: How will Mary travel to Scotland?
- bus
- car
- train
- plane
Question 2: Where are the shoes?
- under the window
- under the table
- on the chair
- by the door
Question 3: When will the football match start next week?
- 11.45 a.m
- 12.15 p.m
- 02.00 p.m
- 04.25 p.m
Question 4: What is Sarah's mother doing?
- going out
- cooking
- washing-up
- cleaning the house
Question 5: What luggage is the man taking on holiday?
- two suitcases and a bag
- two bags and a suitcase
- two suitcases
- one suitcase and a bag
Question 6: Where will the woman go first after work?
- the restaurant
- the market
- the cinema
- tennis court
Question 7: What can festival visitors see everyday?
- plays
- paintings
- films
- concerts
Question 8: What souvenir will the boy's mother bring?
- a T-shirt
- baseball cap
- a model car
- a taxi
PART 2
You will hear three different conversations. In each conversation there are four questions. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Conversation 1. You will hear part of a local radio programme in which someone is talking about a shopping center.
Question 9: When was the center first opened?
- three years ago
- three weeks ago
- two months ago
- two weeks ago
Question 10: How can you get to the center?
- by car and taxi
- by train and taxi
- by car, taxi and train
- by car, train and coach
Question 11: What time do the shops close on Saturday?
- 9:00 am
- 10:00 am
- 8:00 pm
- 9:00 pm
Question 12: What should people do before shopping in the center?
- collect money from the bank
- watch a movie
- rest by the lake
- buy a map
Conversation 2. Listen to an interview with a representative of a wildlife park called Paradise Wildlife Park.
Question 13: Why did Serengeti lions die?
- attacked by domestic dogs
- infected with a disease from domestic dogs
- killed by other wild animals
- sent to villages
Question 14: What events are NOT organized in the park?
- product introduction
- charity events
- family camping
- barbecue
Question 15: You can try this when coming to the park:
- introducing programs on the radio
- deliver discounted tickets
- organize competition
- host an event
Question 16: Which one is not a programme of the park?
- Project Life Lion
- Atlantic Rainforest Project
- Discounted Tickets
- None of the above
Conversation 3. Listen to a conversation about a heater.
Question 17: How many main controls are there on the heater?
- two
- three
- four
- none
Question 18: What is the reason for the problem of the heater?
- the switch doesn't light up
- the little square is black
- the switch is off
- the switch is on
Question 19: When does the woman have to restart the heater?
- When there isn't enough water
- when the water is too hot
- when the heater is switched off
- When there is no light
Question 20: How does the woman feel after listening to the instruction?
- confused
- motivated
- interested
- encouraged
PART 3
You will hear three different talks or lectures. In each talk or lecture there are five questions. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Talk/Lecture 1. You'll hear someone talking to a group of students about a visit to an Arts Centre.
Question 21: There are still tickets for...
- The piano concert.
- The movie.
- Twelfth Night.
- Spider and Rose.
Question 22: The coach will leave at 3.30 because...
- it's the earliest.
- they don't want to miss the shows.
- they want free time at the Arts Centre.
- it's a long journey to the Arts Centre.
Question 23: You have to pay to see...
- the Russian ballet exhibition.
- the shoes store.
- the Scottish jewellery.
- the South American photographs.
Question 24: You can buy clothes...
- on the first floor.
- on the second floor.
- in the souvenir shop.
- close to the Arts Centre.
Question 25: If you want a snack and a hot drink, try...
- the nearby café.
- the fountain.
- Charlie's.
- the cinema kiosk.
Talk/Lecture 2. You'll hear part of a radio programme about bags for walkers.
Question 26: Rod's shop sells bags and...
- camping equipment.
- hiking clothes.
- walking holiday stuffs.
- maps.
Question 27: A 35-litre bag is good for...
- a day trip.
- a four day trip.
- a five day trip.
- a weekend trip.
Question 28: A bag that allows you to separate your belongings has...
- a solid bottom.
- a leather base.
- two compartments inside.
- pockets outside.
Question 29: It's important that shoulder straps are...
- light.
- flexible.
- fashionable.
- strong.
Question 30: Another essential part of the bags includes...
- straps.
- air holes.
- sweat absorption.
- a cooler tool.
Talk/Lecture 3. You will hear a representative from a holiday company called PS Camping.
Question 31: PS Camping has been organising holidays for...
- 15 years.
- 20 years.
- 25 years.
- 30 years.
Question 32: The company has most camping sites in...
- France.
- Italy.
- Europe.
- Switzerland.
Question 33: Which organized activity can children do every day of the week?
- Singing and dancing.
- Football.
- Drama.
- Model making.
Question 34: Some areas of the sites have a "no-noise" rule after...
- 9.30 pm
- 10.00 pm
- 10.30 pm
- 11.30 pm
Question 35: Customers who recommend PS Camping to friends will receive...
- a free gift.
- an upgrade to a luxury tent.
- a discount.
- an insurance.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Cần cố gắng: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng nghe cơ bản. Hãy tập trung nghe các đoạn hội thoại ngắn và làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc nhận biết các thông tin gây nhiễu và luyện tập nghe các bài nói dài hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Xuất sắc: Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng nghe hiểu rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
B: READING
Time permitted: 60 minutes
Number of questions: 40
Directions: In this section you will read FOUR different passages. Each one is followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10
TV REVIEW
Lucy Chang tells you what's new (and not so new!) on your screens this summer.
I always look forward to this time of year, and I'm always disappointed! It's the time of year when the TV channels tell us their plans for the summer and every year I tell myself that it might be different. It never is. Take SuperTV, for example. This channel, on our screens for five years now, broadcasts a depressing mix of game shows and music videos. So what do we find in the new schedule? I'm The One, a game show with holidays as prizes, and VJ-TV, yet another music video programme with brainless presenters. They're also planning to repeat the dreadful chat show Star Quality, which is about as entertaining as watching grass grow. Why can't they come up with new ideas?
Channel 9 does a little better. Now that Train Driver has finished, they've decided to replace it with Staff Room, a reality show that follows teachers around all day. It should be the hit of the summer, giving us an idea of what really goes on when the lesson is over. Who doesn't want to see and hear what teachers say about their students at the end of the school day? Great stuff! Together with Life in Aylesford Street, the soap opera that everyone's talking about, it looks like Channel 9 could be the channel to watch this summer.
Over on BTV1, Max Read is back with Joke-a-Cola, the comedy show. The first series was slightly amusing, the second hilarious. Let's wait and see what the third series is like. Comedy is difficult to get right, but it ought to be great. I wish I could say the same about the sitcom, Oh! Those Kids! It's enough to look at the expressions on the faces of the cast! It's obvious they know it's rubbish and the script is just so badly written! Oh! Those writers!
The programme makers must think we'll watch anything. That's just not true. People might have hundreds of channels on their TV or might live near a cinema with a dozen screens. There is so much choice of entertainment these days - TV, the cinema, the theatre, even the internet that they have to work hard to keep their audience. What they should be doing is making new, exciting programmes. Where are the programmes that make people think they must stay in to watch them?
We have to ask ourselves what entertainment is. We have to think about what people do with their leisure time. Television has been popular for about 50-60 years but it might not be popular forever. More people are going to the cinema and theatre than ever before. More people are surfing the internet or playing computer games than ever before. If Oh! Those Kids! is all that the TV can offer, why should we watch it? With one or two exceptions, this summer's programmes will make more people turn off than turn on.
1. At this time of year
- the TV channels change all their programmes.
- the writer disappoints the TV channels with her reviews.
- the writer hopes for something that never happens.
- the writer's favourite programmes often disappear.
2. How does the writer describe the current programmes on SuperTV?
- exciting
- informative
- strange
- disappointing
3. What does 'They' in line 7 refer to?
- SuperTV
- the TV channels
- the presenters of VJ-TV
- TV viewers
4. The writer says that Staff Room will probably
- be successful.
- shock students.
- be worse than Train Driver.
- be on instead of Life in Aylesford Street.
5. Characters of the show Staff Room are
- students
- teachers
- travelers
- Channel 9's audience
6. The word "hilarious" in line 15 can be best replaced by
- amusing
- informative
- strange
- up-to-date
7. The writer thinks that Joke-a-Cola is now 3
- more difficult to understand.
- more popular with viewers.
- funnier than before.
- more like a sitcom.
8. Because of the various choice of entertainment
- people watch more television.
- people move to areas with more facilities.
- programme makers have to tell lies.
- programmes have to be more exciting.
9. The writer thinks that television
- will never be as popular as the theatre is.
- should show more programmes about hobbies.
- could lose its popularity in the future.
- ought to provide more than just entertainment.
10. Which of the following channels would the author most probably recommend viewers to watch?
- SuperTV
- Channel 9
- BTV1
- All of them
PASSAGE 2 - Questions 11-20
The reluctant hero
The most endearing thing about Aaron Green - and there are many - is his refusal to accept how famous he's about to become. 'I can walk down the street and not be hassled, which is really nice. I kind of hope that continues and I'm sure it will,' he says earnestly. He seems genuinely to believe that the job won't change his life. 'There's nothing fascinating about my life, and there's absolutely no reason why that should start happening.' You can only wish him well.
How lovely if this turned out to be true, but the chances are it won't, and he must know this. Aaron has been cast as the hero in the latest fantasy blockbuster that will hit our screens next year. The first photo of him in his costume was released last week to Internet frenzy.
After an award nomination for his last film, Aaron is having the biggest year of his life, but it hasn't gone to his head. 'It's nice if your work is praised, but it's all very new to me, this,' he says. 'I really like working in this profession and exploring its possibilities. Who knows what the future holds? We could dream about what might happen next, but there's not much point. I'm just enjoying my job and want to do well in it in the future, but that's kind of it, really. No big hassles.'
Of all the characters in his last film, which is based on a true story about a group of university students who start an influential blog, Aaron's character is the one who emerges as most likeable. But he insists that the plot is not as straightforward as it might appear. 'What's wonderful about this film is that everyone feels they are the good guy. I don't think anyone in the cast felt they were playing the villain. It was just a group of human beings that had different opinions.'
It's a typically thoughtful answer from the 27-year-old, who seems to be a bit of a worrier and prefers to avoid watching himself on screen. Doubtless he doesn't care for interviews either, but he is so open and engaging that you wouldn't know it. He felt 'a heightened sense of responsibility' playing a real-life person in his last film, but had no contact with the person concerned. These people are living and breathing somewhere - of course that has a great effect on the care with which you approach your work. I kept wondering if he'd come and see the film, if he'd recognize himself in my performance or be angered by it.'
His performance has a vulnerability about it that is almost painful to watch. Does he seek out those parts or do directors see that quality in him? 'I don't know, I think it's probably a bit of both. I certainly have that unwillingness to lose naivety; to lose that childlike way of looking at the world. I find it a very real and profound theme in my life and, talking to other people my age, I think it's universal.'
11. According to the text, what does Aaron think about his job?
- It helps him become famous.
- It can't make his life change
- It's a boring job.
- It brings him many opportunities.
12. The word "fascinating" in line 4 can be best replaced by
- modern
- ordinary
- frightening
- interesting
13. In the first paragraph, the writer suggests that he thinks Aaron
- has a sensible attitude towards fame.
- seems confident that he can deal with fame.
- seems unaware that he's about to become famous.
- has unrealistic ideas about what it's like to be famous.
14. According to the text, when will Aaron's latest film probably be released?
- at the end of this year
- next year
- in the next 2 years
- in the next 5 years
15. The phrase 'hasn't gone to his head' (line 9) suggests that Aaron
- doesn't think much about his achievements.
- is used to receiving so much praise.
- is doubtful whether he will win an award.
- would like to receive great attention.
16. What does Aaron say about his last film?
- There are clear heroes in it.
- The plot is not as simple as it may appear.
- He knows why people liked his character best.
- There were often disagreements between the actors.
17. What makes the writer think that Aaron is a bit of a worrier?
- He avoids watching his own films.
- He doesn't like giving interviews.
- He feels responsible for the character he plays.
- He thinks carefully before answering a question.
18. How did Aaron feel when playing a real-life person in his last film?
- curious
- fantastic
- confused
- highly responsible
19. What does Aaron say about playing a real-life person on screen?
- He was disappointed that he never met that person.
- He was sure that person wouldn't want to see the film.
- He was concerned that the person might feel angry.
- He was pleased that the person approved of the fact he was playing it.
20. According to the final paragraph, what do Aaron and the directors of his films have in common?
- the fame
- the professionalism
- the appearance
- the unwillingness to lose naivety
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy dành thời gian đọc kỹ lại các đoạn văn và câu hỏi để nắm bắt thông tin chính xác hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc và hiểu các ý chính. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy chú ý đến các chi tiết nhỏ và các câu hỏi suy luận.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Bạn có kỹ năng đọc hiểu rất tốt. Hãy tiếp tục phát huy và thử sức với các bài đọc phức tạp hơn.
PASSAGE 3 - Questions 1-10
ADVERTISING - ART OR POLLUTION?
How many adverts do you think you'll see today? 10? 30? According to the market research firm Yankelovich, some of us see as many as 2,000-5,000 adverts a day! There are adverts all around us. Most of the time we're not even consciously aware of them. But think about your town or city. How many billboards, shop signs and posters does it have?
Tokyo, in Japan, takes urban advertising to the extreme. Although the city temples may still lay claim to being more impressive, the explosion of sound and colour in the commercial centre can take your breath away. Whether you find the overall effect stunning or nightmarish is a question of personal taste. However, it would be hard not to admire the advertisers' ingenuity. Recent innovations include interactive games projected onto walls for people to play. 'Smellvertising' is also catching on - that's the idea of using pleasant smells like chocolate to attract consumers' attention!
Innovations in Tokyo are of huge significance in the world of advertising because where Tokyo leads, other cities soon follow. Big cities from New York to London already have outdoor television screens. Although Tokyo is far from being universally admired, many urban authorities find its approach to advertising exciting and dynamic. So what's the problem?
If every city copied Tokyo, it would be absolutely terrible!' exclaims Roberta Calvino of the advertising watchdog group, Ad Alert. 'At the moment, Tokyo's futuristic style sets it apart. It invites our attention because there's simply nothing like it. But we don't need 100 poor imitations. In many cities, advertising is as bad as litter or vandalism - it spoils our environment. Go beyond the city outskirts and you'll find that advertising is taking over the countryside, too. The world's biggest advert was actually in a field in Austria, below the flight path to Vienna airport. It was the size of 50 football pitches!'
According to Roberta, advertising can also influence the way we think and feel. 'Advertisers want to convince us that their products will make us happy or successful. Unfortunately, that's all an illusion - you can't simply "buy" a celebrity lifestyle at the shops! Nevertheless, advertisers work hard to get us to swallow this message. For instance, fashion brands prefer to advertise using images of glamorously made-up supermodels because they want "ordinary" girls to feel inadequate in comparison as the more dissatisfied we feel with our lives, the more we'll spend to cheer ourselves up! Although outdoor advertising may seem to make less of an immediate impression than TV commercials, its message can have greater force.
In 2007, one Brazilian city made a radical protest. Gilberto Kassab, the mayor of São Paulo, ordered the removal of more than 15,000 adverts! In justification, he condemned urban advertising in very strong terms as 'visual pollution'. Unsurprisingly, this made many local businesses unhappy. One marketing executive argued that adverts 'are more like works of art, hiding grey office blocks and industrial estates,' However, a more typical response can be summed up in this statement from Isuara dos Santos, 19. 'If we'd known what a difference it would make, we'd have got rid of the adverts years ago. Now we can see the real Sào Paulo, and it's wonderful!'
1. What is the main point of the first paragraph?
- We see more adverts than we realise.
- Many people are annoyed by television advertising.
- We do not pay enough attention to adverts.
- Advertising has increased in towns and cities.
2. Yankelovich is
- A marketing company
- A manufacturing company
- A market research company
- A consulting firm
3. What do we learn about the writer's opinion of advertising in Tokyo in the second paragraph?
- It lacks a personal appeal for him.
- He thinks that it is very creative.
- It seems excessive to him.
- He thinks it is Tokyo's main attraction.
4. Why do advertisers see Tokyo as important?
- It sets trends which are often copied.
- Its distinctive style is popular with everyone.
- It reflects trends that are popular elsewhere.
- Its style is imitated in every city.
5. What does the writer mean by 'sets it apart' in line 16?
- makes it seem individual and different.
- is something which visitors find very inviting
- gives it something in common with other cities
- lends it a highly unattractive appearance
6. In the fourth paragraph, Roberta Calvino suggests that
- the largest adverts can usually be found in rural areas.
- advertising is a particularly bad problem in Austria.
- outdoor advertising extends beyond urban areas.
- modern adverts are continuing to grow in size.
7. What does Roberta tell us about urban advertising in the fifth paragraph?
- It can be rather unconvincing.
- It helps us to fulfil our dreams.
- It particularly affects women.
- It can lower our self-confidence.
8. What comparison does Roberta make between urban advertising and TV advertising?
- TV advertising is more effective in the long term.
- It is easier to ignore urban advertising.
- Urban advertising can have more impact.
- There is greater variety in urban advertising.
9. What did the mayor of São Paulo do in 2007?
- He ordered the removal of more than ten thousand adverts.
- He encourages the establishment of advertising companies in the area.
- He wrote an article about urban advertising.
- He was strongly impressed by the development of advertising firms in the area.
10. What response did the mayor get when he removed advertising from Sao Paulo?
- The majority of private individuals and commercial people supported him.
- Advertisers were willing to display fewer advertisements in the city.
- Local artists were unsure how attractive the office blocks would look.
- Most of the people who lived in the city welcomed his decision.
PASSAGE 4 - Questions 11-20
Until fairly recently explaining the presence of human beings in Australia was not such a problem. At the beginning of the twentieth century, it was thought that Aborigines had been on the continent for no more than 400 years. As recently as the 1960s, the time-frame was estimated to be perhaps 8,000 years. Then in 1969 a geologist from the Australian National University in Canberra was poking around on the shores of a long-dried lake bed called Mungo in a dry and lonely comer of New South Wales when something caught his eye. It was the skeleton of a woman sticking out slightly from a sandbank. The bones were collected and sent off for carbon dating. When the report came back, it showed that the woman had died 23,000 years ago. Since then, other finds have pushed the date back further. Today the evidence points to an arrival date of at least 45,000 years ago but probably more like 60,000.
The first occupants of Australia could not have walked there because at no point in human times has Australia not been an island. They could not have arisen independently because Australia has no apelike creatures from which humans could have descended. The first arrivals could only have come by sea, presumably from Timor or the Indonesian archipelago, and here is where the problems arise.
In order to put Homo sapiens in Australia you must accept that at a point in time so remote that it precedes the known rise of behaviourally modem humans, there lived in southern Asia a people so advanced that they were fishing inshore waters from boats of some sort. Never mind that the archaeological record shows no one else on earth doing this for another 30,000 years.
Next we have to explain what led them to cross at least sixty miles of open sea to reach a land they could hardly have known was there. The scenario that is usually described is of a simple fishing craft - probably little more than a floating platform - accidentally earned out to sea probably in one of the sudden storms that are characteristic of this area. This craft then drifted helplessly for some days before washing up on a beach in northern Australia. So far, so good.
The question that naturally arises - but is seldom asked - is how you get a new population out of this. If it's a lone fisherman who is carried off to Australia, then clearly he must find his way back to his homeland to report his discovery and persuade enough people to come with him to start a colony. This suggests, of course, the possession of considerable sailing skills.
By any measure this is a staggeringly momentous achievement. And how much notice is paid to it? Well, ask yourself when was the last time you read anything about it. When was the last time in any context concerning human movements and the rise of civilizations that you saw even a passing mention of the role of Aborigines? They are the planet's invisible people. A big part of the problem is that for most of us it is nearly imposible to grasp what an extraordinary span of time we are considering here. Assume for the sake of argument that the Aborigines arrived 60,000 years ago (that is the figure used by Roger Lewin of Harvard in Principles of Evolution, a standard text). On that scale, the total period of European occupation of Australia represents about 0.3 per cent of the total.
11. According to the text, Aborigines arrived in Australia
- 400 years ago
- 8,000 years ago
- 23,000 years ago
- more than 45,000 years ago
12. What did the discovery of the skeleton show?
- Aborigines used to live in very remote parts of Australia.
- The area called Mungo, now dry, was once a lake.
- Aborigines have been in Australia far longer than previously thought.
- The Aborigine population was larger than originally thought.
13. Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the text?
- Australia has always been an island since people existed.
- Australian apes became extinct before human times.
- Aborigines probably originated in Timor or Indonesia.
- Aborigines must have arrived in Australia by sea.
14. Why is it so surprising that Homo sapiens got to Australia?
- It required skills that people generally developed very much later.
- People in that area were less advanced than other peoples at this time.
- Only much smaller boats have been found elsewhere from this period.
- Aborigines are not particularly known for their sailing skills.
15. What usually provides the explanation for the Aborigines' arrival in Australia?
- their curiosity
- bad weather
- a desire for better fishing
- hunger for land
16. This author is puzzled by how...
- the boat managed to travel across such dangerous seas
- the aborigines got enough food and water to survive the crossing
- enough people got there to found a settlement
- the Aborigines chose not to return to their homeland
17. Which word could replace 'staggeringly' in line 33 without changing the meaning?
- extraordinarily
- shockingly
- wonderfully
- desperately
18. What does the writer seem most surprised by at the end of this extract?
- the way that Aborigines managed to establish themselves in Australia
- how badly European settlers treated Australian Aborigines
- how long Australian Aborigines have lived on the continent
- the fact that so little attention is paid to this aspect of human history
19. In which space (marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) in the passage) will the following sentence fit? In other words, for the first 99.7 per cent of its inhabited history, the Aborigines had Australia to themselves. They have been there an unimaginably long time.
- (A)
- (B)
- (C)
- (D)
20. What is the main point the writer is making in the last paragraph?
- The Europeans had no right to take over Aborigine land in Australia.
- No one can be exactly certain as to when the Aborigines first arrived in Australia.
- The Aborigines have inhabited Australia for much longer than the Europeans have Europe.
- The Aborigines were the only people in Australia for most of the time since it was settled.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu và suy luận của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy đọc chậm lại, chú ý đến các chi tiết và từ khóa trong bài.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc và nắm bắt ý chính của đoạn văn. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc phân tích các câu hỏi phức tạp và loại trừ các đáp án sai.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Bạn có khả năng phân tích sâu và hiểu rõ hàm ý của tác giả.
Listen to the audio and answer questions 1-35.
TEST 7
A: LISTENING
Directions: This is the listening test for levels from 3 to 5 of the Vietnam's 6-level Language Proficiency Test. There are three parts to the test. You will hear each part once. For each part of the test there will be time for you to look through the questions and time for you to check your answers. Write your answers on the question paper. You will have 5 minutes at the end of the test to transfer your answers onto the answer sheet.
PART 1
There are eight questions in this part. For each question there are four options and a short recording. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You now have 48 seconds to look through the questions and the options in each question.
1. Which box of chocolates do they buy?
- the small round one
- the big round one
- the square one
- the oval one
2. When's Wendy's birthday?
- 16th May
- 18th May
- 21st May
- 26th May
3. How much petrol does the woman want?
- 13 litres
- 30 litres
- 33 litres
- 43 litres
4. What time is the woman's hair appointment?
- Saturday at 9.30 am
- Saturday at 12.00
- Friday at 10.00
- Friday at 11.30
5. Where's the TV guide?
- top of the TV
- by the chair
- under the cushion
- by the telephone
6. What does the man decide to take Tracy?
- flowers
- a CD
- sweets
- fruit
7. Which sport has the man just started?
- windsurfing
- sailing
- horse-riding
- swimming
8. What was damaged in the storm?
- the house roof
- window glass
- a car
- a tree
PART 2
Directions: You will hear three different conversations. In each conversation there are four questions. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversations only once.
Conversation 1. You will listen to a conversation between a boy John and a girl Louise
9. What are they both doing here?
- to meet Mrs Thompson
- to listen to John singing
- to attend singing class
- to dance in a musical show
10. What does John think of Mrs Thompson?
- she isn't strict
- she can sing well
- she is a good teacher
- she makes him nervous
11. What does John imply about his performance?
- He does well in a real show
- He practices it well
- He really likes it
- He makes some big mistakes
12. What does Louise think of a musical show?
- she is not interested
- she is keen on that
- she thinks she will try it
- she would love it.
Conversation 2. Listen to the conversation and answer the questions.
13. How many children competed for roles in the show?
- 6
- 1,000
- 7
- a few hundreds
14. What was the first success of Olivia?
- When they came to London
- When they visit Palladium
- When she got the leading role
- After she visited the local theatre
15. How did Olivia practice for the role in Annie?
- Learned 200 pages
- Practiced two hours a day
- Her mother helped her.
- Learned it with her homework
16. What did Jackie feel about her daughter's performance?
- She was ashamed
- She was amazed
- She didn't like it much
- She couldn't sing
Conversation 3. Listen to a conversation between an English teacher, Paul and a foreign student in his course, Kira.
17. What is true about Kira?
- She went home last year
- She started a course in Pharmacy over again.
- She is a third year student
- She will finish her course in 12 months
18. What does she think about her course now?
- it is difficult
- it is similar to the course she did
- it is easier
- she doesn't like it
19. Why does she say her assignment is difficult?
- she is not familiar with it
- she is expected to be critical
- she feels terrible
- her lecturer is terrible
20. What does she mean about lecturers in her country?
- They are horrible
- You can talk to them easily
- They are knowledgeable
- It's hard to discuss with them
PART 3
You will hear three different talks or lectures. In each talk or lecture there are five questions. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You will hear the talks or lectures only once.
21. You do not have to provide...............
- a letter of recommendation.
- school records.
- exam results.
- health certificate.
22. Your required English level depends on........
- your age.
- your chosen course.
- your grades.
- your nationality.
23. Some science courses require you to...
- take an exam.
- complete a foundation year.
- do extra personal study.
- have a higher level of English.
24. Application for undergraduate courses is.
- always via UCAS.
- direct with universities.
- either via UCAS or direct with universities.
- via a placement agency.
25. British universities.......
- are the best in the world.
- rank among the top universities in the world.
- are all well respected.
- are generally well respected.
Talk/Lecture 2. You will hear a man called Dan Pearman talking on the radio about Pedal Power, a UK charity which sends bicycles to people in developing countries.
26. In 1993 Dan Pearman went to Ecuador
- as a tour guide.
- as part of his studies.
- as a voluntary worker.
- a student.
27. Dan's neighbour was successful in business because he
- employed carpenters from the area.
- was the most skilled craftsman in the town.
- found it easy to reach customers.
- worked very hard.
28. Dan says the charity relies on
- getting enough bicycles to send regularly.
- finding new areas which need the bicycles.
- charging for the bicycles it sends abroad.
- getting the second-hand bikes from the rich.
29. What does Dan say about the town of Rivas?
- It has received the greatest number of bikes.
- It has almost as many bikes as Amsterdam.
- Its economy has been totally transformed.
- Everyone there owns a bicycle.
30. What problem did the charity face in August 2000?
- It couldn't meet its overheads.
- It had to delay sending the bikes.
- It was criticized in British media.
- It didn't get enough bikes ready to send.
Talk/Lecture 3. You're going to hear a radio talk on back pain given by doctor Paula Clayburg of Liverpool's Wilton Clinic.
31. According to the speaker, the main cause of back pain in women is
- pregnancy.
- osteoporosis.
- lack of exercise.
- too much exercise.
32. As treatment for back pain the Clinic mainly recommends
- pain killers.
- relaxation therapy.
- exercise routines.
- bed rest.
33. The back is different from other parts of the body because
- it is usually better at self-repair.
- a back injury is usually more painful.
- its response to injury often results in more damage.
- it is worse if we keep the back as immobile as possible.
34. Bed rest is advised
- for a maximum of two days.
- for less than two days.
- for pain lasting more than two days.
- for extreme pain only.
35. Being overweight
- is a major source of back pain.
- worsens existing back pain.
- reduces the effectiveness of exercise.
- is the only cause of back pain.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Cần cố gắng (B1): Kỹ năng nghe hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy tập trung vào việc nghe các đoạn hội thoại ngắn và làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi cơ bản.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Khá tốt (B2): Bạn có khả năng nghe và nắm bắt thông tin tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy luyện tập nghe các đoạn nói dài và chú ý đến các chi tiết nhỏ.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Xuất sắc (C1): Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng nghe hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
Directions: In this section you will read FOUR different passages. Each one is followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10
Take me out to the Ballpark
Baseball, hot dogs, apple pie... you just can't get more American than that! Frank Bell gives us a look at baseball, no longer just America's favourite sport!
Baseball is sometimes called a national pastime in America because it is a much loved national sport. Of course, baseball is not limited to the USA. It has played for many years in the countries of South America and is very popular in Japan. Europe is another matter, not many baseball teams exist in Europe today. That, however, is slowly changing. Since baseball is an Olympic sport, more and more countries are putting together teams and joining the game! (A)
Going to baseball games is a way of life for many fans. They sit in the stands on hot and sunny spring and summer days, eat hot dogs or popcorn, sip cola or lemonade and enjoy the game. Adults and children alike attend games, and it's a sport that everyone seems to love. Baseball is such a part of American life that nearly everyone's favourite childhood memory includes a day at the ballpark.
When and where did the game of baseball start? Well, people have been playing games with a stick and a ball for hundreds of years! Modern baseball, however, about 150 years ago in New York, USA and has been a popular sport ever since. It has changed a little bit over the years but the basic game remains the same.
Baseball is played with a bat, which a stick about 100 cm long is made of metal or wood, and a small hard ball. Each player also wears one heavy leather glove to catch the ball. Baseball gear usually consists of a lightweight shirt and trousers that come down just past the knees. (B)
Baseball is played on a special outdoor field which has two parts, the infield and the outfield. In the infield is an area shaped like a diamond that indicates the boundaries of the playing area. On the diamond, there are also the three bases that the players must run over to score. The outfield is an open grassy area where players wail to catch balls that are hit by other players.
The game of baseball is divided into nine parts, called innings. During an inning, each of the two teams takes its turn to bat, which means trying to hit the ball that is thrown to them by the pitcher of the other team. After the ball is hit, the player tries to run and touch three different bases before running to home base. The team not batting tries to catch the balls that are hit and stop the runners before they score. The team that scores the most runs by the end of the ninth inning wins. It's a game that can go very slowly for a while then suddenly have a series of fast and exciting moves! (C)
Fans love baseball games! The stands are usually filled for the games. People enjoy a day at the ballpark cheering on their favourite team and relaxing in the summer sun. So what are you waiting for? Put on your baseball cap and give it a try! (D)
Question 1
The writer says that baseball ..........
- is played only in America.
- is not popular in countries like Japan.
- started in South America.
- is becoming more popular all over the world.
Question 2
According to the text, baseball is played in more and more countries because ..........
- it is an exciting game.
- it is included in the Olympic Games.
- Many American people live there.
- It is easy to play.
Question 3
Which sentence isn't true about baseball?
- It was first played during the 1850s.
- It is an Olympic sport.
- The rules have changed quite a lot over the years.
- It started in New York.
Question 4
Which piece of equipment is not mentioned in the text?
- bat
- ball
- glove
- mask
Question 5
In which space (marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) in the passage) will the following sentence fit?
Players wear shoes with spikes to help them run, just as football players do, and a baseball cap, which is something everyone is familiar with!
- (A)
- (B)
- (C)
- (D)
Question 6
What is the baseball field like?
- It has an infield, an outfield and a middle field.
- There are three diamonds on the ground.
- There are three bases on the diamond.
- It is usually in an indoor stadium.
Question 7
The game is divided into ..........
- two halves.
- nine innings.
- three bases.
- an infield and an outfield.
Question 8
The object of the game is to ..........
- catch as many balls as you can.
- hit the ball the farthest.
- score the most runs.
- bat as often as you can.
Question 9
What is true about a baseball match?
- It's slow.
- It often takes place on hot summer days.
- Spectators are not allowed to bring foods to the ballpark.
- The speed of the match may change suddenly.
Question 10
According to the text, most American people have ..........
- childhood memory at a ballpark.
- a baseball gear.
- experience of participating in at least a baseball inning.
- all of them
PASSAGE 2 - Questions 11-20
Ten Events, One Champion: THE DECATHLON
Fay Webster takes a look at the world of athletics and finds out what it takes to be a true champion.
The Olympic Games have changed a lot since their origins in Ancient Greece. Today, athletes from countries all over the world take part and the Olympics are big business, watched by millions on television. Some things, though, have stayed the same. The athletes then could make a lot of money from winning, just like today's competitors. In the ancient Games, a great champion might have received as much as a year's pay for winning a race.
Another thing that hasn't changed is the search for an all-round champion, somebody who can defeat their opponents at a number of different sporting events. In the ancient Olympics, athletes competed in the pentathlon. This consisted of the long jump, the discus, the javelin, a running race and wrestling. The first winner, in 708 BC, was Lampis of Sparta, who must have been a great athlete to beat so many others from all over the Hellenic world. The pentathlon was an important part of the Olympics until Emperor Theodosius of Rome banned the Games in 393 AD.
The Stockholm Olympics of 1912 brought back this tradition of the search for all round greatness. The modern pentathlon was included (shooting, swimming, fencing, riding and running) and so was the modern decathlon (ten events), with the heptathlon (seven events) for women being introduced later. So what drives someone to take on this running, throwing, jumping challenge and push their body to its limits? I met American decathlete Bruce Thorpe in New York and told him he must have been crazy to take up the decathlon. He laughed.
'Yes, I think I probably was. I could have done lots of different sports, but I chose the decathlon. It's very tough and it demands a lot of different skills. You have to train just as hard as other athletes, only you have to do it in ten different events! I think we're probably all a little crazy, but it's very satisfying in the end,' he said. I asked him to explain what happens in the decathlon.
'The way it works is you complete each event and you get points, depending on how well you do in that event. At the end of two days, the person with the most points is the champion and takes the gold medal, the second person gets the silver and the third the bronze medal. We start with the 100 metres, the long jump, the shot put, the high jump and the 400 metres. The second day, it's the 110 metre hurdles, the discus, the javelin, the pole vault and the one that we all dread, the 1500 metres.' I asked him what made the 1500 metres such a struggle. 'All the other events demand speed or strength. With the long race, it's stamina. Really, decathletes aren't built for that event.'
So what tips does Bruce have for those of you thinking of taking up the decathlon? 'Start as early as you can and join a good club,' he said. 'It takes a long time to master ten different events, or seven for the heptathlon, and you need expert help. And don't expect to have much free time!'
Ten events, one champion. Think you might be the one? If you're Interested in finding out more about the decathlon, contact your local athletics club.
Question 11
In the first paragraph, the writer says that athletes today
- are more popular than in ancient times.
- are much better than in ancient times.
- treat the Olympics like a business.
- can become wealthy through sport.
Question 12
What does the word "This" in line 8 refer to?
- the champion
- the running race
- Greece
- the pentathlon
Question 13
The ancient pentathlon didn't test athletes' abilities to
- throw things.
- jump high.
- run fast.
- jump far.
Question 14
Lampis of Sparta was ..........
- the organizer of the first ancient Olympics
- Emperor Theodosius of Rome
- the first winner of the ancient Olympics
- the greatest athlete in history
Question 15
According to the passage, the heptathlon for women ..........
- became an Olympic event after 1912.
- similar to the ancient pentathlon.
- tests the ability to ride a horse.
- is much easier than the decathlon.
Question 16
How many sporting events were included in the modern decathlon of Stockholm Olympics in 1912?
- only one
- five
- seven
- ten
Question 17
What did Bruce Thorpe say about decathlon?
- It is challenging and requires athletes to have various skills.
- There's no need for participants to train hard.
- It has only seven events.
- It takes one day to decide the winner.
Question 18
What do you have to do to win a gold medal in the decathlon?
- Score more points than all the other competitors.
- Beat the other competitors in at least three events.
- Finish each event in the top three.
- Complete the events in the right order.
Question 19
What does Bruce say about the events?
- The 1500 metres should be on the first day.
- The first day is tougher than the second.
- The 1500 metres is different from the other events.
- It looks easier than it actually is.
Question 20
What is Bruce's advice for people thinking of becoming decathletes?
- Get a trainer to guide you.
- Get up early to start training
- Take up the heptathlon instead.
- Try to get a good time in all the events.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
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PASSAGE 1 - Questions 1-10
COAST TO COAST
A 27-year-old graphic designer from Oxfordshire in England completed a record-breaking journey across Australia yesterday. It was a 5,800 kilometre odyssey - and he travelled the whole distance on a skateboard. David Cornthwaite, who started skateboarding less than two years ago, decided on his epic journey after waking up one morning and realising he hated his job. 'I thought, the only thing keeping me going is the skate to and from work. I was a bit disillusioned and I was looking for something new,' he said. 'I saw a Lonely Planet guide to Australia. There was a map on the back. Perth was on one side and Brisbane on the other and I thought, "that'll do".'
He decided to prepare by skateboarding from John O'Groats to Lands End: the two points furthest apart on the British mainland. That 1.442 kilometre trek, which he finished in June, took just over a month, during which an infected blister swelled to the 'size of a tennis ball'.
Crossing Australia on a skateboard brought unique challenges. The wind caused by huge road trains, the articulated lorries that thunder across the Outback, was so powerful that he was sometimes blown off his board. Multiple blisters and aching ankles, toes and feet, have kept him in almost constant pain for the last six weeks. 'I feel like an old man. I'm not sure that anyone has ever had this many blisters,' he said. Temperatures of 40°C and above mean that he has used more than a dozen tubes of factor 30 sunscreen. 'There have been moments where I thought "this is ridiculous, I have to rest", but I never contemplated giving up.' He has worn through 13 pair of shoes and has an over-developed right calf muscle which he compares to 'a giant chicken fillet'.
Skating an average of 50 kilometres a day and hitting speeds of up to 50kph on downhill runs, he left Perth, Western Australia, and skated across the fearsome Nullarbor Plain into South Australia. After reaching Adelaide he made his way to Melbourne and from there to Sydney. A support team of seven people trailed him all the way in a four-wheel drive vehicle, which included camping equipment for night stops. The journey has smashed the previous record for a long-distance skateboard, set by an American, Jack Smith, who covered 4,800 kilometres across the US in 2003.
David Cornthwaite was less than three kilometres from the end of his epic journey when he hit a hole and was so thrown off his skateboard, suffering cuts and bruises to his shoulders, knees, hips and elbows. 'I was only going at 40km at the time, so although it wasn't pretty, it could have been a lot worse,' he said.
In the short term, he hopes to spend the next few days surfing on the Gold Coast, south of Brisbane, to build up some much-needed upper body strength. I've got huge legs but a skinny body - it's a bit ridiculous. I need to give my body a chance to warm down and surfing sounds ideal. For the time being I'm hanging up my skateboard.' In the longer term, he plans to give motivational speeches and write a book. Another long-distance journey is also on the cards. 'I'm certainly not going back to the day job,' he said.
Question 1
Why did David Cornthwaite decide to skateboard across Australia?
- He was an experienced skateboarder
- He wanted to break a world record
- He was bored with his life and wanted to try something different
- Somebody gave him a guidebook about Australia
Question 2
The word "disillusioned" in line 5 can be best replaced by
- disappointed
- embarrassed
- fascinated
- delighted
Question 3
His preparation in Britain was ..........
- successful, but painful
- successful, but more time-consuming than planned
- successful, but more difficult than he had realised
- unsuccessful because he got injured
Question 4
What made David fall off his skateboard several times in Australia?
- thunderstorms in the Outback
- the trains that race across the Outback
- the injuries on his feet
- the wind created by huge lorries going past
Question 5
At times, David felt as though he ..........
- needed to stop for a while.
- wanted to give up completely.
- wanted to get out of the sun.
- needed a new pair of shoes.
Question 6
During the journey, where did David sleep at night?
- in a four-wheel drive vehicle
- in a tent
- outdoors on the Nullarbor Plain
- in the homes of his supporters
Question 7
David fell off his skateboard because ..........
- he was going too fast his journey
- he was exhausted and in pain
- he didn't see a hole in the road
- he was thinking about finishing his journey
Question 8
Why does David think surfing is a good thing to do after his journey ..........
- He can stay close to Brisbane.
- He's always wanted to surf on the Gold Coast.
- He wants to strengthen the top half of his body.
- He needs to keep his legs strong.
Question 9
What does David hope to do eventually?
- encourage other people to feel more positive about themselves
- put his skateboard away
- return to work as a designer
- persuade other people to make long-distance journeys
Question 10
According to the text, in some days, David plans to skate on
- Perth
- Adelaide
- Melbourne
- Gold Coast
PASSAGE 2 - Questions 11-20
On Tour with the London Symphony Orchestra
'Footballers and musicians are in the same business. They both do stressful jobs in front of critical audiences. The only difference is that football crowds are noisier.' So says Rod Franks. And he should know. Franks started his working life with Leeds United Football Club, neatly changed direction, started playing the trumpet instead of football, and is now principal trumpeter with the LSO (London Symphony Orchestra). Franks might have made a further observation about the similarities between orchestras and football clubs: it is playing away that presents the real challenges.
London's oldest orchestra has been playing away since it was formed almost a century ago. Nowadays, the orchestra's trips abroad are kept to tours of a maximum of two and a half weeks. But since touring is clearly expensive and presents major organisational and technical problems, why bother to tour at all? Clive Gillinson, the managing director, says: 'A'great international orchestra needs to work with the greatest conductors and soloists. No recording company will record a conductor or soloist if he or she is only known in one territory - they need an international reputation. So for the recording side to work, you have to visit the key markets; you need to tour.'
By touring with projects or festivals, Gillinson is able to create an event, not just provide a series of concerts. It is more expensive to do, but when you leave town you are not so easily forgotten.
For Sue Mallet, the orchestra's administrator, the difficulties of her job lie in getting a symphony orchestra and its instruments on stage, on time and in one piece. However well she plans each tour, and she does her planning with scientific accuracy, events sometimes take an upper hand. On one occasion a concert had been advertised for the wrong night, and on another the lorry carrying the instruments from the airport to the concert hall broke down and got stuck in snow.
It is a tiring and stressful business flying around the world, and yet on balance it is one of the rewards of the job. Certain moments are unforgettable. At the end of a concert in Moscow an enthusiastic audience had brought the orchestra to its feet. As one of the musicians was about to sit down, an elderly lady in the front row pressed a piece of paper into his hand. It said, in words of simple English, what lovely music the orchestra had made.
Question 11
What do footballers and musicians have in common?
- Their work abroad earns a lot of praise.
- They receive too much unfair criticism.
- They enjoy extremely noisy audiences.
- They experience tension in their work.
Question 12
What are we told about Rod Franks?
- He used to be the director of a football club.
- He switched from one career to another.
- He used to be a professional trumpeter.
- He disliked his original choice of career.
Question 13
Before joining London Symphony Orchestra, Rod Franks worked for ..........
- a football club
- a travel agency
- a consulting firm
- an event organizing firm
Question 14
The word "principal" in line 4 can be best replaced by
- original
- main
- prime
- initial
Question 15
The LSO began playing abroad ..........
- only fairly recently.
- over a hundred years ago.
- when it was first set up.
- when it needed money.
Question 16
Orchestras have to travel abroad ..........
- to play with foreign conductors.
- to record with foreign companies.
- to make themselves better known.
- to record with new solo players.
Question 17
What does 'It' in line 15 refer to?
- organising a number of recordings
- visiting the most important markets
- the expense of touring in a country
- providing more than just concerts
Question 18
Sue Mallet's arrangements for the LSO can be ..........
- affected by external circumstances.
- made difficult by awkward players.
- spoilt by overlooking tiny details.
- spoilt by very careless planning.
Question 19
What does the phrase 'with scientific accuracy' (line 18) suggest about Sue Mallet's planning?
- It's very neat and tidy.
- Her figures are correct.
- She used to be a scientist.
- The details are excellent.
Question 20
According to the writer, what made a certain moment 'unforgettable' (line 23)?
- the fact that the orchestra stood up
- an individual's appreciation
- the enthusiastic applause
- the fact that a message was in English
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
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Kết quả: [[score]]/20
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PASSAGE 1
We always went to Ireland in June. Ever since the four of us began to go on holidays together we had spent the first fortnight of the month at Glencom Lodge in County Antrim. It's a large house by the sea, not far from the village of Ardbeag. The English couple who bought the house, the Malseeds, have had to add to the building, but everything has been done most discreetly.
It was Strafe who found Glencorn for us. He'd come across an advertisement in the days when the Malseeds still felt the need to advertise. 'How about this?' he said one evening and read out the details. We had gone away together the summer before, to a hotel that had been recommended by friends, but it hadn't been a success because the food was so appalling.
The four of us have been playing cards together for ages, Dekko, Strafe, Cynthia and myself. They call me Milly, though strictly speaking my name is Dorothy Milson. Dekko picked up his nickname at school, Dekko Deacon sounding rather good, I suppose. He and Strafe were at school together, which must be why we call Strafe by his surname as the teachers used to. We're all about the same age and live quite close to the town where the Malseeds were before they decided to make the change from England to Ireland. Quite a coincidence, we always think.
'How very nice,' Mrs Malseed said, smiling her welcome again this year. Some instinct seems to tell her when guests are about to arrive, for she's rarely not waiting in the large, low-ceilinged hall that always smells of flowers. 'Arthur, take the luggage up,' she commanded the old porter. 'Rose, Tulip, Lily and Geranium.' She referred to the names of the rooms reserved for us. Mrs Malseed herself painted flowers on the doors of the hotel instead of putting numbers. In winter, when no one much comes to Glencom Lodge, she sees to little details like that; her husband sees to redecoration and repairs.
'Well, well, well,' Mr Malseed said, now entering the hall through the door that leads to the kitchen. 'A hundred thousand welcomes,' he greeted us in the Irish manner. He was smiling broadly with his dark brown eyes twinkling, making us think we were rather more than just another group of hotel guests. Everyone smiled, and I could feel the others thinking that our holiday had truly begun. Nothing had changed at Glencorn, all was well. Kitty from the dining room came out to greet us. 'You look younger every year, all four of you,' she said, causing everyone in the hall to laugh again. Arthur led the way to the rooms, carrying as much of our luggage as he could manage and returning for the remainder.
1. Why did the Malseeds no longer advertise Glencorn Lodge?
- It was too expensive.
- It was not necessary.
- It was too complicated.
- It was not effective.
2. The word ‘come across’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
- found
- covered
- placed
- published
3. What did Dekko and the writer have in common?
- They did not like their names.
- People used their surnames when speaking to them.
- They chose their own nicknames.
- People did not call them by their real names.
4. The ‘coincidence’ referred to in paragraph 3 is that the four friends and the Malseeds
- came from the same area.
- preferred Ireland to England.
- lived close to one another.
- were all about the same age.
5. What was special about the rooms at Glencorn Lodge?
- They had been painted by Mrs Malseed herself.
- There was no paint on the doors.
- They did not have numbers.
- There were different flowers in all of them.
6. What did the writer particularly like about Mr Malseed?
- He had nice brown eyes.
- He always came to welcome them.
- He made guests feel like friends.
- He spoke in the Irish way.
7. The word ‘see to’ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
- overcomes
- turns to
- takes care of
- observes
8. Why did the writer feel contented after Mr Malseed had spoken?
- Everything was as it had always been.
- The holiday would start at any moment.
- A few things had improved at Glencorn.
- Her friends had enjoyed the holiday.
9. What did Kitty do which made the friends laugh?
- She told them a joke.
- She pretended to insult them.
- She laughed when she saw them.
- She paid them a compliment.
10. What is the main idea of the passage?
- a two-week holiday in Glencom Lodge
- successful business of Glencom Lodge
- a perfect accommodation for people travelling in groups
- tips to find a good accommodation in Ireland
PASSAGE 2
How does a person become an Olympic champion – someone capable of winning the gold? In reality, a combination of biological, environmental, and psychological factors, as well as training and practice, all go into making a super athlete.
[A] Perhaps the most important factor involved in becoming an elite athlete is genetics. Most Olympic competitors are equipped with certain physical characteristics that differentiate them from the average person. Take an elite athlete's muscles, for example. In most human skeletal muscles (the ones that make your body move), there are fast-twitch fibers and slow-twitch fibers. Fast-twitch fibers help us move quickly. Olympic weightlifters, for example, have a large number of fast-twitch fibers in their muscles – many more than the average person. These allow them to lift hundreds of kilos from the ground and over their heads in seconds. Surprisingly, a large, muscular body is not the main requirement to do well in this sport. It is more important to have a large number of fast-twitch fibers in the muscles.
The legs of an elite marathon runner, on the other hand, might contain up to 90 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers. These generate energy efficiently and enable an athlete to control fatigue and keep moving for a longer period of time. When we exercise long or hard, it’s common to experience tiredness, muscle pain, and difficulty breathing. These feelings are caused when the muscles produce high amounts of lactate and can’t remove it quickly enough. Athletes with many slow-twitch muscle fibers seem to be able to clear the lactate from their muscles faster as they move. Thus, the average runner might start to feel discomfort halfway into a race. A trained Olympic athlete, however, might not feel pain until much later in the competition. [B]
[C] For some Olympic competitors, size is important. Most male champion swimmers are 180 cm (six feet) or taller, allowing them to reach longer and swim faster. For both male and female gymnasts, though, a smaller size and body weight mean they can move with greater ease, and are less likely to suffer damage when landing on the floor from a height of up to 4.5 meters (15 feet).
[D] Those raised at high altitudes in countries such as Kenya, Ethiopia, and Morocco have blood that is rich in hemoglobin. Large amounts of hemoglobin carry oxygen around the body faster, enabling these athletes to run better. Cultural factors also help some athletes do well at certain sports. Tegla Loroupe, a young woman from northern Kenya, has won several marathons. She attributes some of her success to her country's altitude (she trains at about 2,400 meters, or 8,000 feet) and some to her cultural background. As a child, she had to run ten kilometers to school every day. “I'd be punished if I was late,” she says.
Although genetics, environment, and even culture play a part in becoming an elite athlete, training and practice are needed to succeed. Marathon runners may be able to control fatigue and keep moving for long periods of time, but they must train to reach and maintain their goals. Weightlifters and gymnasts perfect their skills by repeating the same motions again and again until they are automatic. Greg Louganis, winner of four Olympic diving gold medals, says divers must train the same way to be successful: “You have less than three seconds from takeoff until you hit the water, so it has to be reflex. You have to repeat the dives hundreds, maybe thousands, of times.” Training this way requires an athlete to be not only physically fit but psychologically healthy as well. “They have to be,” says Sean McCann, a sports psychologist at the Olympic Training Center in the U.S. “Otherwise, they couldn't handle the training loads we put on them. [Athletes] have to be good at setting goals, generating energy when they need it and managing anxiety.”
11. What is the passage mainly about?
- factors that make someone a super athlete
- the different muscle types of a super athlete
- the size of a super athlete
- how to qualify for the Olympics
12. The word ‘more’ in paragraph 2 refers to
- Olympic weightlifters
- fast-twitch fibers
- muscles
- average people
13. The word ‘generate’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
- waste
- devote
- save
- release
14. Having a lot of slow-twitch muscle fibers is particularly important for
- cyclists
- divers
- weightlifters
- runners
15. When lactate builds up in their muscles, people feel
- strength
- energy
- dizziness
- pain
16. What advantage do athletes from high-altitude countries have?
- a strong sense of culture
- hemoglobin-rich blood
- lower amounts of lactate in their muscles
- more muscles in their legs
17. What is the main idea of paragraph 6?
- Genetics is an important part of athletic success.
- Divers must train to be successful.
- Marathon runners must train hard to succeed.
- Success in sports comes from a lot of practice.
18. In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit? "Some athletes’ abilities are naturally enhanced by their environment."
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
19. What does Greg Louganis do?
- a marathon runner
- weightlifter
- diver
- swimmer
20. What is NOT mentioned as a factor that make an athlete successful?
- cultural background
- genetics
- nationality
- practice
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy tập trung vào việc đọc hiểu ý chính của đoạn văn và tìm kiếm thông tin chi tiết.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
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Kết quả: [[score]]/20
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PASSAGE 3
At the end of the 1800's, Thomas Edison introduced the incandescent light bulb and changed the world. Remarkably, the incandescent bulb used today has changed little in over a hundred years. An incandescent light consists of a glass bulb filled with an inert gas such as argon. Inside the bulb, electricity passes through a metal filament. Because of resistance, the filament becomes so hot that it glows. But 95% of the energy goes to produce heat and is basically wasted. Given that 20% of the world's electricity is used to power lights, this represents an enormous amount of wasted energy.
In the 1940's a new, more efficient form of lighting, the fluorescent bulb, was introduced. Fluorescents work by passing electrical current through gas in a tube, producing invisible ultraviolet light. A phosphor coating on the inside of the tube then converts the ultraviolet to visible light. Little heat is wasted. Fluorescents have proved popular in offices, factories, and stores, but they never took over the residential lighting market. The harsh color isn't as pleasing as the warmer glow of incandescent lamps. Besides, they have a tendency to flicker on and off and to produce an annoying buzz.
Now, lighting engineers are developing a new form of lighting that is both pleasing to the eyes and energy efficient. This is the light-emitting diode, or LED. LEDs are made up of layers of electron-charged substances. When an electrical current passes through the layers, electrons jump from one layer to another and give off light without producing heat. Different types of materials result in light of different colors. Red, green, and orange LEDs have been used for decades in devices such as digital clocks, calculators, and electronic toys. In the future, however, white-light-emitting diodes (WLEDs) may be used to light homes. Engineers say that they are significantly more efficient than either incandescent or fluorescent lights.
The next challenge for researchers is to develop an efficient, bright, inexpensive WLED. A few years ago, a Japanese scientist named Shuji Nakamura discovered that, by using layers of gallium nitride, he could create a powerful blue LED. Later, engineers devised two ways to use this blue LED to create a WLED. Red, green, and blue LEDs can be combined, creating a pleasant white light. Another way is to use a chemical coating similar to that inside a fluorescent bulb that converts the blue light to white. Nevertheless, it will still be some time before WLEDs are commonly used in homes. WLEDs are currently only twice as energy efficient as incandescent. They are also very expensive. But researchers believe that they can create WLEDs that are ten times as efficient and one thousand times as long-lasting as incandescent lights, making them cost effective.
LEDs may someday have an even greater impact on developing countries than in the developed world. Worldwide, an estimated 2 billion people lack access to electricity. Lighting is usually provided by kerosene lamps. Kerosene is expensive, creates indoor pollution, does not provide very bright light, and worst of all, causes many fires. A low-energy (1-watt) WLED can provide enough light for a person to read by – more light, in fact, than most kerosene lamps. An entire rural village could be lighted with less energy than that used by a single conventional 100-watt light bulb. Energy to light these efficient LEDs can be provided by batteries that are charged by pedal-driven generators, by hydroelectricity from rivers or streams, by wind-powered generators, or by solar energy.
Question 1
In paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the problems with fluorescent lights?
- The need to replace them often
- An annoying sound
- The harsh quality of the light they produce
- Their tendency to flicker
Question 2
According to the passage, a red LED is different from a green LED because it
- is made from different materials
- uses a different amount of energy
- uses a red plastic filter, not a green one
- produces less heat
Question 3
The word ‘they’ in paragraph 3 refers to
- white-light-emitting diodes
- digital clocks, calculators, toys, and similar devices
- engineers
- red, orange, and green LEDs
Question 4
In paragraph 4, what achievement of Shuji Nakamura does the author mention?
- He discovered the chemical compound gallium nitride.
- He invented the first WLED.
- He found a way to combine blue, green, and yellow LED light.
- He developed a bright blue LED.
Question 5
It can be inferred from the passage that the most recently developed type of LED is a powerful
- red LED
- white LED
- blue LED
- green LED
Question 6
In paragraph 4, the author compares one type of WLED with fluorescent light because they both
- use ultraviolet light
- are filled with gas
- employ a chemical coating
- are energy efficient
Question 7
From the information in paragraph 4, it is clear that WLEDs could be used in homes today if they were
- not so expensive
- easier to install
- twice as efficient as incandescent lights
- available in various colors
Question 8
The author gives details about the use of kerosene lights in paragraph 5 in order to
- explain why people in developing countries prefer kerosene to electrical light
- show the problems and dangers associated with this form of lighting
- give an example of a type of lighting that is not as important as it once was
- demonstrate that kerosene is brighter and easier to use than WLEDs
Question 9
The electricity to power WLEDs in rural villages would come directly from
- the energy of the sun
- batteries
- water power
- a human-powered generator
Question 10
The word ‘conventional’ in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
- inexpensive
- powerful
- standard
- experimental
PASSAGE 4
An important part of marketing is determining what price to charge consumers for goods and services. Companies aspire to set prices that are high enough to allow them to make a profit but low enough to encourage people to purchase their products. To determine these prices, marketing specialists must consider a variety of factors and use a number of different pricing approaches.
Cost-based approaches determine the price of a product based on how much it costs to make. This is the simplest method because manufacturers can easily determine how much it will cost them to produce their goods. After they calculate the price of materials and labor, they add a set percentage to that cost, called a standard markup, which covers advertising, marketing, and other administrative costs, as well as a profit. The main advantage to this approach is its simplicity. Businesses do not need to adjust their prices constantly based on changes in the market for their goods. However, the inability to account for important factors relating to the market is also the weakness of the cost-based approach. This is why many businesses also use more complex approaches to determine their prices.
In many industries, producers often pay less attention to their own costs and set prices based on those of their leading competitors instead. This is called competition-based pricing. It sometimes puts small businesses at a disadvantage. Because very large companies can buy their materials or production machinery in bulk, they often have lower production costs than smaller companies do. In order to compete, smaller companies cannot depend on cost-based pricing. They often set their prices lower than those of their larger competitors, even though their production costs may be higher, in order to make their products attractive to consumers and build or maintain their customer base.
While cost-based and competition-based pricing are largely based on objective mathematical factors, like production costs and average prices, buyer-based approaches are based on individual perspective. [A] Perceived value is how much consumers feel an item is worth, as opposed to its actual monetary value. [B] For example, a product like a pet rock, which is simply an ordinary rock marketed as a pet, has very little actual monetary value. [C] Marketers will not use production costs to set their price, because this would make the price too low. [D] Instead, they must determine how much consumers feel their product is worth.
Because perceived value is subjective, it is difficult to calculate. One common strategy for determining the perceived value of a product is to interview people in focus groups, small groups of people who share their feelings about a product with market experts. The responses of focus groups often change according to the group being interviewed, so experts try to interview a large enough sample to get useful information. Along with focus groups and market experts, some businesses may even employ psychologists to help them understand the minds and emotions of consumers so that they can create products that people will see as valuable. The more perceived value an item has, the more a company can charge for that item, regardless of its production costs or the prices set by competitors.
Question 11
The word ‘aspire’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
- decide
- hurry
- aim
- attempt
Question 12
What is NOT a disadvantage of competition-based pricing for small businesses?
- it provides benefits for companies that buy materials in bulk.
- it favors companies with low production costs.
- it promotes the use of a single pricing strategy.
- it encourages sellers to set prices lower than their costs will allow.
Question 13
What can be inferred about large businesses?
- They are more likely to use only one pricing approach.
- Their prices are influenced by the pricing strategies of small businesses.
- They spend less money on marketing than small businesses do.
- They tend to have higher production costs when using competition-based pricing.
Question 14
The word ‘objective’ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
- accessible
- improper
- impartial
- precise
Question 15
What do cost-based and competition-based approaches have in common?
- They are based on the value of a product or service.
- They depend on measurable information.
- They rely equally on personalized information and averages.
- They focus on the costs to the customer.
Question 16
Why does the author mention a pet rock in paragraph 4?
- To give an example of a product with a low perceived value
- To illustrate why using perceived value is appropriate for certain products
- To contrast the actual and perceived value of a specific item
- To explain how buyer-based and competition-based pricing can be used together
Question 17
In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit? "In buyer-based pricing, companies set prices based on the perceived value of a commodity."
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
Question 18
What best paraphrases the following sentence in paragraph 5? "One common strategy for determining the perceived value of a product is to interview people in focus groups, small groups of people who share their feelings about a product with market experts."
- In order to determine the perceived value of a product, some focus groups interview experts about their feelings on a product.
- Interviewing people in focus groups is one way that market experts determine the perceived value of a product.
- Focus groups allow market experts to interview people about how they form their ideas about the value of an item.
- One strategy for interviewing small groups of people about perceived value involves asking them how they feel about a product.
Question 19
The word ‘they’ in paragraph 5 refers to
- market experts
- businesses
- psychologists
- consumers
Question 20
What is NOT true about an item’s perceived value?
- It allows companies to set prices without concern for other marketing factors.
- It may vary from group to group.
- It reflects the psychology of the consumer.
- It is often higher than the actual value.
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Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1
Questions 1-10
Early humans watched their fires blacken the ceilings of the caves where they lived. They saw blue and red in the sky and brown and green on the ground. In time, people began to understand that color not only made the world more beautiful, it was also able to convey emotion and symbolize power. In the 19th century, a young chemistry student became the first to manufacture a synthetic dye, and suddenly the world became a much more colorful place. By the 20th century, as scientists discovered the psychological effects of colors, everyone from advertisers to educators found ways to make use of color to influence our feelings and behavior. [A]
Red, the color of human blood, has traditionally symbolized intensity, fire, love, and anger. In Eastern cultures, it also represents luck, wealth, and success. In humans, the color red can send different messages. Some people redden, for example, when they are angry or embarrassed. British anthropologists Russell Hill and Robert Barton of the University of Durham found that when opponents in a game are equally matched, the team dressed in red is more likely to win. Why? According to Barton, red seems to be the color, across species, that signals dominance” – giving those dressed in red an advantage in sporting events. In many animal species, contact with this bold color causes the heart rate to accelerate. However, one of red’s lighter shades, pink, can have the opposite effect on people. Men in prisons are reported to be more passive when the walls are painted a specific shade of pink. Humans have also used the color red in everything from politics to advertising. Many food products in the U.S, for example, are packaged in red containers. Why? [B]
Yellow, the color we most often associate with sunshine, is found throughout nature and the man-made world as a color that commands attention; indeed, it is one of the easiest colors to see. This highly visible shade is found on everything from school buses to traffic signs and pens used to highlight important information in a text. The color is also used to caution people. [C] Soccer players, for example, are shown yellow as a reminder to behave. It can be used as a stimulant as well: In a number of studies, yellow has been found to help children focus on their work and do better in school.
Blue has long been associated in many cultures with water, holy or religious objects, and protection against evil. Over the years, darker shades of the color have also come to represent calm, stability, and power. Dark blue, for example, is the color of the business suit or police uniform. In other cultures, blue has been associated with sadness. It’s common in English, for example, when feeling sad or depressed, to talk about “feeling blue,” while in Iran, blue is the color of mourning, worn when a person dies. Like pink, blue has a neutral, calming effect on people. Rooms painted blue help people relax or sleep. (Sleeping pills are often colored blue to suggest exactly this idea.) [D]
Question 1
What is the passage mainly about?
- how color influences our lives
- the various sources for extracting color
- how views about color have changed
- how certain colors can have a calming effect
Question 2
The first non-natural colors were produced
- many centuries ago
- in the 19th century
- in the 20th century
- only recently
Question 3
What does the red color NOT symbolize for?
- dominance
- anger
- attention
- success
Question 4
According to the passage, which color can give a sports team a competitive advantage?
- black
- yellow
- blue
- red
Question 5
In paragraph 2, what does the word accelerate mean?
- go slower
- go faster
- become uneven
- become louder
Question 6
What do people use the yellow color for?
- to warn people of something
- to decorate things
- to express the feeling of sadness.
- to reduce one’s hunger
Question 7
Which color has been used to help children study better?
- red
- yellow
- blue
- pink
Question 8
In paragraph 4, the phrase ‘this idea’ refers to
- inhibiting hunger
- blue food
- relaxation
- painting rooms
Question 9
According to the passage, what do the colors pink and blue have in common?
- They both have a calming effect.
- They both make people less hungry.
- They both express sadness.
- They both represent power.
Question 10
In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit? *The color makes the product look as if it is advancing toward a shopper.*
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
PASSAGE 2
Questions 11-20
In what is probably the first memorable sporting action photo, we see a tiny man with a moustache, bent backwards, eyes closing in exhaustion, a handkerchief slipping off his head, surrounded by officials as he finishes the marathon at the London Olympics of 1908. [A] The man was Dorando Pietri, an Italian baker. In many ways, this was the beginning of global media coverage for big sporting events, and Pietri became the first global sporting celebrity. [B]
Early last century, when Pietri began running in his home town of Carpi in northern Italy, the ancient Greek idea of the marathon race was just being rediscovered. The course for the London Games was set by Britain’s Queen Alexandra, who decided that for her grandchildren’s convenience, the race should start beneath the nursery window at their home, Windsor Castle. The finish line in London’s White City stadium was 26 miles and 385 yards away - which remains the marathon’s official distance today.
Back then, the best preparation for running a marathon was believed to be steak for breakfast. Pietri had also taken a chemical called strychnine - today typically used in rat poison - in the mistaken belief that it would improve his performance. By the time he approached White City he understandably felt a little unwell. He later recalled seeing ‘a grey mass in front’, which proved to be the stadium. He added, ‘After that, I remember little.’
It soon became obvious that Pietri was struggling. He began running the wrong way around the track. When officials pointed this out to him, he fell over. He got up, then collapsed again. Arthur Conan Doyle, creator of Sherlock Holmes, was watching from a few metres away, reporting for the Daily Mail. He wrote: ‘It is horrible, and yet fascinating, this struggle between a set purpose and an utterly exhausted frame.’
The crowd - including Queen Alexandra - began urging the officials to help Pietri. Pietri kept collapsing, but eventually they practically pushed him across the finish line. Conan Doyle was impressed: ‘No ancient Roman had known how to accept the laurels of victory better than Pietri.’ Seconds after Pietri, the American runner Johnny Hayes, a sales clerk at Bloomingdale’s department store in New York, trotted over the line. Quite naturally, Hayes pointed out that Pietri had been helped, which was against the rules. After much debate, Hayes was declared the winner. Pietri fell unconscious, and several newspapers prematurely reported his death.
There is no celebrity without mass media. If you could choose anyone on earth to write up your drama in 1908, it would be Conan Doyle in the Daily Mail, which in 1902 had become the bestselling newspaper on earth, with circulation topping one million. Newspapers around the world reprinted Conan Doyle’s article. He also started a collection to help Pietri set up his own bakery. Throw in the startling action picture by an unknown photographer, and Pietri’s story went global.
[C] Nowadays people dressed in Donald Duck costumes run double marathons for charity, but in 1908 completing a marathon was considered an almost superhuman feat. [D] To my mind, that distinguishes Pietri from the Olympic heroes of today. Most of them have lived since childhood in a higher realm of top-performance sport. They are better prepared than Pietri in every way, but it is much easier to see ourselves in him.
Question 11
What can be the best title for the passage?
- The original Olympic hero
- the length of ancient Olympic marathon
- the history of Olympic Games.
- preparation for Olympic marathon
Question 12
What is true about the length of the modern marathon race?
- it was based on measurements used in ancient games.
- it used to be changed quite often at the Olympic Games.
- it used to be much longer than it is in the current Games.
- it was originally fixed at the 1908 London Olympic Games.
Question 13
What is mentioned about Pietri’s preparation for the race?
- it had ignored expert advice.
- it hadn’t really been appropriate.
- it had been interrupted by illness.
- it had not involved running the course itself.
Question 14
Where did Pietri come from?
- Britain
- Greece
- Italy
- the US
Question 15
The word ‘this’ in paragraph 4 refers to
- Pietri’s state of health.
- an error which Pietri made.
- an attempt to give Pietri first aid.
- the correct direction in which Pietri should run.
Question 16
What impressed Sir Arthur Conan Doyle about the end of the race?
- Pietri’s determination to finish it.
- Pietri’s willingness to accept defeat.
- The way Pietri was helped to complete it.
- The respect which Pietri showed for the rules.
Question 17
The word ‘prematurely’ in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
- surprisingly
- too soon
- immediately
- finally
Question 18
What does the author suggest in paragraph 6?
- Conan Doyle felt that he had treated Pietri badly.
- Pietri didn’t approve of what was written about him.
- Pietri benefitted from the fact that Conan Doyle was famous.
- The photograph of Pietri was more important than the newspaper article.
Question 19
What does the author want to express in paragraph 7?
- admiration for Pietri’s attempt at the marathon.
- surprise that Pietri attracted so much media attention.
- doubts about the commitment of some modern athletes.
- disappointment with the way modern marathons are organised.
Question 20
In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit? *What moved the world in 1908 was the sight of an ordinary man attempting something extraordinary*
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
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PASSAGE 3 - Questions 1-10
In 1969, in her book On Death and Dying, psychologist Elisabeth Kübler-Ross introduced the idea that there are several distinct stages of grief. The book, which was based on her work with terminally ill and dying patients, posited that people who were going through the grieving process went through unique and separate stages. These stages are as follows: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
While there are five commonly accepted stages in the Kübler-Ross model, other interpretations of her model use seven stages of grief, which are shock and denial, pain and guilt, anger and bargaining, depression and loneliness, beginning to heal, reconstruction, and acceptance and hope. The main differences are that the five stages model considers anger and bargaining to be two separate stages, does not include guilt, and considers the final three stages of the seven stages model to be one stage.
The five stages of the Kübler-Ross model can be summarized and applied to a wide variety of grief situations. The first stage, denial, consists of a phase in which the victim can’t believe that something bad is actually happening. It takes time for the victim to process the bad event is actually happening, and this stage may be lengthened by the unfolding of the news of the situation.
The second stage, anger, consists of a phase in which the victim becomes upset and filled with rage and jealousy of those outside of the bad situation. While the victim may feel justified in having these feelings, this stage can isolate the victim from people who would care for him or her by pushing them away.
In bargaining, the third stage, the victim feels a temporary hope that something they can do, give, or sacrifice will stop the bad situation from occurring or make the bad situation that has already happened (such as the death of a loved one or a divorce) go away. While this is rarely true, the hope provides the victim with a brief respite from the negative feelings of the anger stage, and can cause a temporary positive outlook. While this makes the victim easier to be around, those around the victim who know that the bad situation will continue also know that the victim’s negative feelings will return as soon as it is discovered that no bargain can be struck that will end the bad situation.
The fourth stage of grief, depression, consists of the victim’s realization that the bad situation is not going to end, and that he or she will not be able to escape it. Some victims become so mired in the sadness and other negative feelings of this stage that they lose interest in maintaining their lives and relationships. Ironically, the sadness and other negative feelings of the depression stage show that the victim is finally realizing that the bad situation is real and beginning to process that reality.
The fifth stage, acceptance, is when the victim begins to find peace with the bad situation and his or her place in it. While acceptance contains sadness, it is not the paralyzing sadness of the depression stage that makes the victim lose interest in others or in maintaining daily activities. Acceptance is the stage referred to as “coming out the other side.”
Question 1
What is the main idea of the passage?
- to describe the stages of grief
- to explain who Elisabeth Kübler-Ross was
- to detail the differences in the five stages versus the seven stages of grief
- to question the importance of the stages of grief theory
Question 2
The word ‘grief’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
- sadness
- mourning
- theory
- death
Question 3
Kübler-Ross based her theory on her experience
- working with children whose parents were divorcing
- working with people who were dying
- working with researchers who had a theory of seven stages of grief
- working with the author of the book On Death and Dying
Question 4
What is NOT a stage of grief by Kübler-Ross?
- depression
- bargaining
- reconstruction
- acceptance
Question 5
The word ‘stage’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
- theory
- theater
- phase
- denial
Question 6
What is true about the denial stage?
- It results from information received by the victim.
- It is the shortest stage.
- It always lasts from a few days to a week.
- It is combined with guilt.
Question 7
What best paraphrases the following sentence in paragraph 5? *While this is rarely true, the hope provides the victim with a brief respite from the negative feelings of the anger stage, and can cause a temporary positive outlook.*
- Although nothing the victim does can affect the outcome of the situation, he or she may temporarily have hope that something can become happy.
- The victim may become very happy that something he or she does can change the outcome of the situation.
- The victim may become very happy to think that something he or she does can change the outcome of the situation.
- Nothing the victim does can change the outcome of the situation positively or negatively.
Question 8
The word ‘it’ in paragraph 5 refers to
- the theory
- Kübler-Ross
- the victim
- the bad situation
Question 9
What is characteristic of the acceptance stage?
- feeling jealous
- feeling guilty
- feeling peaceful
- feeling angry
Question 10
It can be inferred from the passage that
- people who are dying will not survive to reach the acceptance stage
- the seven stages model is more robust than the five stages model
- Kübler-Ross’s critics have more experience with grief than she did
- the grieving person is not always dying
PASSAGE 4 - Questions 11-20
A new trend in vehicle technology is to design systems that run on natural gas instead of gasoline or diesel. Compressed natural gas (CNG) is far better for the environment than either gasoline or diesel because it burns cleaner, vehicles that run on natural gas instead of gasoline or diesel are more fuel efficient, and CNG is less expensive than more traditional options. Auto and truck manufacturers are rushing to bring new engines to market that run on natural gas and to modify existing engines to run on natural gas.
There is a growing market for fuel-efficient vehicles in the United States and around the world, and vehicles that run on natural gas are at the forefront of meeting this demand. Most of the market for fuel-efficient vehicles that run on natural gas are companies with large fleets of trucks, specifically energy companies, field service companies, telecom companies, and government fleets. They are making the decision to switch to CNG vehicles primarily because of the fuel savings, but also for the environmental benefits and the push toward supporting a domestic fuel source that creates economic growth in the United States.
Compressed natural gas is produced in the United States as well as around the world, so using CNG gives American companies a way to use a local fuel source that is not subject to fluctuations in the international market or external factors affecting the price of gasoline, such as conflicts in oil-producing regions, OPEC, or other political maneuverings. Increasing CNG use and production in the United States also contributes to the country’s gross domestic product (GDP), a number that indicates the health and strength of the country’s economy overall. Using CNG is good for the economy.
In addition, because of the political visibility of the vast benefits of CNG, many states are implementing tax incentives that further reduce the cost of converting current vehicles from using gasoline to using CNG. At the same time, vehicles are being designed to use either CNG alone or to have duel-combustion systems that can run on either gasoline or compressed natural gas. Because of rapid industry growth and the increased availability of CNG technology, companies producing CNG or developing CNG conversion technology are investing in the development of infrastructure (CNG fueling stations) needed to support the rising number of CNG vehicles on the road.
Converting a vehicle that currently runs on gasoline or diesel to run on CNG is a simple process consisting of installing a converter unit to the existing engine. These units are produced by companies that have obtained certification from environmental agencies that have determined the parameters for considering a CNG engine conversion “clean” enough to be environmentally friendly. The companies that produce these conversion units install them into existing vehicles owned by the companies that request them, or to new vehicles delivered straight from the vehicle manufacturer to the CNG conversion company. Technicians install the CNG converter units, test the installation, and deliver them to the customer company, which can begin using the vehicles immediately.
Because of the simplicity and relatively low cost of converting engines to using CNG, it makes solid financial sense for companies running large fleets of trucks to convert them. Once the tax savings and incentives to these companies are figured in, the conversion process is a negligible expense that pays for itself almost immediately. As more and more companies running fleets of trucks discover the financial benefits of running their trucks on CNG instead of gasoline, the market for CNG conversions and CNG-native engines will continue to increase.
Question 11
What is the passage mainly about?
- what compressed natural gas is.
- why companies are becoming more environmentally friendly.
- compressed natural gas as a fuel source that is good for the environment and for companies that convert to it.
- how CNG conversion is performed on a truck that runs on gasoline.
Question 12
The word ‘modify’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
- substitute
- make less intense
- change
- reduce
Question 13
Why does the author mention energy companies in paragraph 2?
- to give examples of companies that use fleets of trucks and might use CNG vehicles.
- to question whether the market is so narrow that the technology is not worth pursuing
- to examine the motivations for these companies to make such a radical choice for fuel
- to describe the process of converting a gasoline engine to a CNG engine
Question 14
What is NOT a reason for companies using CNG vehicles?
- to protect the environment
- to save fuel
- to promote use of local fuel source
- to be forced by the government
Question 15
The word ‘factors’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
- issues
- disasters
- products
- benefits
Question 16
What best paraphrases the following sentence in paragraph 4? *Because of rapid industry growth and the increased availability of CNG technology, companies producing CNG or developing CNG conversion technology are investing in the development of infrastructure (CNG fueling stations) needed to support the rising number of CNG vehicles on the road.*
- CNG producers would like to see more CNG fueling stations available for users of CNG and companies that convert trucks to using CNG.
- Companies that install CNG converters do not know where to refuel on CNG because there are still very few CNG fueling stations.
- CNG producers are investing in CNG fueling stations to support the companies that perform CNG conversions on trucks.
- CNG producers and companies that sell truck conversions are investing in building CNG fuel stations to support growth in the use of CNG.
Question 17
The phrase ‘these units’ in paragraph 5 refers to
- CNG fueling stations
- gasoline engines
- CNG engines
- CNG engine conversion units
Question 18
Why is converting truck engines using gasoline to CNG easy?
- the conversion is financed by environmental groups
- the conversion simply requires installing one premade unit onto the engine
- the conversion can be done by the driver of the truck
- the conversion is done when the truck is manufactured in the factory
Question 19
Which is NOT true about trucks that run on CNG?
- They are cheaper to run than trucks that run on gasoline.
- The conversion process makes them more difficult to drive than trucks that run on gasoline.
- They have a smaller environmental impact than trucks that run on gasoline.
- Companies can have them converted to run CNG before delivery.
Question 20
The passage implies that
- trucks that run on CNG have more cargo space than trucks that run gasoline
- more trucks will run on CNG in the future
- CNG fueling stations will be subsidized by CNG producers
- the long-term environmental benefits of running a truck on CNG do not outweigh the significant costs of converting the truck
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy luyện tập đọc các đoạn văn ngắn và trả lời câu hỏi để nâng cao khả năng nắm bắt thông tin.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc hiểu ổn định. Hãy tiếp tục luyện tập với các bài đọc dài và phức tạp hơn để nâng cao trình độ.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất tốt. Bạn đã sẵn sàng để chinh phục các thử thách khó hơn.
PASSAGE 1
No one travels alone to the hottest place on Earth. You need, for starters, a driver and a Jeep stocked with water and four days of non-perishable food. There are no places to lodge or dine in this desert, so you'll need space for beds and someone who knows how to cook. And finally, because a journey like this costs many thousands of dollars, you'll need some fellow travelers to split the bill - the sort of people who like to fry themselves on vacation.
My father is the easiest recruit. Dad, who naps best roasting in the afternoon sun, is a lover of extreme heat. He's also an extreme traveler, drawn to the fringes of places, all the countries where no one vacations. From my father, I've inherited both tendencies: I'm known for getting bright pink sunburns, and also for stalking the edges of maps. The Danakil desert lies on the fringes of several countries, which claim a sliver of this sweltering, low-lying desert, named the cruelest place on earth. I don't have to mention this to my father - not the endless salt flats, lakes the bright color of mouthwash, or camels by the thousands. When dad starts calling this desert 'the frying pan', I know he's in.
We enlist three more people and in Mekele, the starting place for our voyage, we merge with four others. We fill five Jeeps and have nothing in common but a love of travel, and a willingness to sweat for it. The Jeeps plunge down mountains for hours. The heat, of course, is brutal. I remind myself this is just a warm-up. The real heat won't strike until we reach the sizzling edge of the frying pan, an uninhabited region, roughly 130 meters below sea level, called Dallol, which holds the record for the highest average annual temperature: 94 degrees.
As we continue, sand gives way to salt, and soon we're in a landscape of white crystals glinting in the fresh morning light. The ground is miraculously flat. Our driver, who has been battling fine sand, cannot resist the urge to go for it. We surge ahead of the other cars in what looks like a Jeep race across some frozen lake. Suddenly, in the pure white expanse, a huge brown mound appears. We're ordered by our guides to find a full liter of bottled water, and to bring it with us up the lumpy brown mountain.
At the summit, I find my travel mates standing in a kind of silent daydream. Astonished, they crouch down beside pale green toadstools - mineral formations whose glossy tabletops are smooth as marble. The hottest place on earth is an assault of color: yellow and deep rust, pea green and purple. Some of the formations look like coral reefs, others like egg shells, air-blown from the hot breath of the earth below. Everyone wanders off alone, crunching over the earth, heads down, staring at the ground and shaking their heads.
I know the ground is hot - you can even hear water boiling underground. Everywhere we step, things break and splinter. Just when I work up the nerve to step with force, the purple ground collapses beneath my foot. The sneaker I pull back out is covered in bright yellow stuff. You start to think: we really shouldn't be here. This desert wasn't built to handle a human intrusion, and the human body certainly wasn't built to handle this desert.
1. What is NOT a thing to prepare for the desert trip?
- food and water
- a dining table
- a place for sleep
- a Jeep
2. Which of the following does the author agree with?
- Planning for a trip in the desert is straightforward.
- High temperatures can cause problems for travellers.
- Travelling individually in the desert is unwise.
- The expense of desert travel puts many people off.
3. What does the writer say about her father?
- He's passed on his love of travelling in remote places to his daughter.
- He misses having company when he goes to unusual places.
- He prefers to research places for himself than listen to others.
- He likes to plan every detail of a journey by studying maps.
4. How many people were there on the trip?
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 9
5. The word ‘it’ in paragraph 3 refers to
- heat
- willingness
- travel
- voyage
6. Why does the author mention ‘remind myself this is just a warm-up’ in paragraph 3?
- to say that the writer is still getting to know her fellow travelers.
- to show that the real challenge of the journey is still ahead of them
- to say that they have a long way to go before they reach their destination
- to say that the drivers are still learning how to find their way in the mountains
7. What does the writer compare the landscape to in paragraph 4?
- a beach
- mud
- ice
- dust
8. What is mentioned about the fellow travelers in paragraph 5?
- They find it difficult to look at the brightness of the colours.
- They are disappointed by some of the things they see.
- Their surroundings are impossible to make sense of.
- They are unable to take their eyes off the scene in front of them.
9. How does the writer feel as she is walking around on her own?
- shocked by the fact that the ground is so soft
- afraid that she might never find her way out of the place
- worried that she is going to hurt herself
- uncertain about whether she is doing the right thing
10. What is the purpose of the passage?
- to describe difficulties people might have on a desert trip
- to report a journey to the hottest place on earth
- to give advantages of travelling with others to a desert
- to describe beautiful desert landscapes
PASSAGE 2
Volcanoes are both creators and destroyers. They can shape lands and cultures, but can also cause great destruction and loss of life. Two of the best-known examples are found at opposite ends of the world, separated by the Pacific Ring of fire.
Japan’s Sacred Summit
Located in the center of Japan, Mount Fuji is a sacred site. Japan's native religion, Shintoism, considers Fuji a holy place. Other people believe the mountain and its waters have the power to make a sick person well. For many, climbing Fuji is also a rite of passage. Some do it as part of a religious journey; for others, it is a test of strength. Whatever their reason, reaching the top in order to stand on Fuji's summit at sunrise is a must for many Japanese – and every July and August, almost 400,000 people attempt to do so.
Fuji is more than a sacred site and tourist destination, however. It is also an active volcano around which four million people have settled, and sits just 112 kilometers (70 miles) from the crowded streets of Tokyo. The last time Fuji exploded, in 1707, it sent out a cloud of ash that covered the capital city and darkened the skies for weeks. [A]
Today, new data have some volcanologists concerned that Fuji may soon erupt again. According to Motoo Ukawa and his associates at the National Research Institute for Earth Science and Disaster Prevention, there has been an increase in activity under Fuji recently, which may be caused by low-frequency earthquakes. Understanding what causes these quakes may help scientists predict when Fuji, the largest of Japan's 86 active volcanoes, will come back to life. In the meantime, locals living near Fuji hold special festivals each year to offer gifts to the goddess of the volcano – as they have for generations – so that she will not erupt and destroy the land and its people below.
Mexico’s Smoking Mountain
Halfway across the globe from Fuji, El Popo – one of the world's tallest and most dangerous active volcanoes – stands just 60 kilometers (37 miles) southeast of Mexico City. Although the volcano has erupted many times over the centuries, scientists believe its last great eruption occurred around 820 A.D. In recent years, however, El Popo has been threatening to explode once more; in December 2000; almost 26,000 people were evacuated when it started to send out ash and smoke. As with all active volcanoes, the question is not if it will erupt again (an eruption is inevitable); the question is when it will happen. [B]
“Every volcano works in a different way,” explains Carlos Valdés González, a scientist who monitors El Popo. “What we're trying to learn here are the symptoms signaling that El Popo will erupt.” These include earthquakes, or any sign that the mountain's surface is changing or expanding. The hope is that scientists will be able to warn people in the surrounding areas so they have enough time to escape. A powerful eruption could displace over 20 million people – people whose lives can be saved if the warning is delivered early enough. [C]
For many people living near El Popo – especially the farmers – abandoning their land is unthinkable. As anyone who farms near a volcano knows, the world's richest soils are volcanic. They produce bananas and coffee in Central America, fine wines in California, and enormous amounts of rice in Indonesia. [D] People who live near El Popo consider it as a god, a mountain, and a human all at the same time and present their offerings, asking the volcano to protect and provide for one more season.
11. What is paragraph 2 mainly about?
- how Mount Fuji became an important religious site
- the healing properties of Mount Fuji
- reasons people climb Mount Fuji
- the visitors to Mount Fuji
12. What is NOT a reason for people who climb Mount Fuji?
- religion
- testing their health
- finding a cure for a disease
- seeing the sunset
13. Which of these statements about Mount Fuji is NOT true?
- It is the largest volcano in Japan.
- Scientists believe it may erupt soon.
- It has erupted recently.
- Locals have traditions concerning the mountain.
14. How can scientists date the last great eruption of El Popo?
- by looking at old paintings
- by talking to people who experienced the event
- from investigating geological evidence
- from descriptions in religious books
15. In paragraph 6, the word ‘symptoms’ could be replaced with
- earthquakes
- signs
- sounds
- lessons
16. What was the reason for the evacuation from El Popo in 2000?
- Ash and smoke were seen coming from the mountain.
- A large earthquake was felt.
- A change in the mountain’s surface was noticed.
- A powerful eruption took place.
17. Which statement is true about both Mount Fuji and El Popo?
- They have both erupted recently.
- They are both less than 100 kilometers from a very large city.
- Locals present gifts to both volcanoes for protection.
- They both provide rich soil used for producing coffee.
18. The word ‘abandoning’ in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to
- leaving
- reaching
- cultivating
- farming
19. In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit?
"For this reason, people will stay on their land, even if they face danger."
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
20. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
- Volcanoes as religious sites
- Destructive volcanoes
- Two most famous volcanoes worldwide
- Mount Fuji and El Popo – examples of active volcanoes
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng hơn: Bạn cần rèn luyện thêm kỹ năng đọc hiểu và xác định ý chính của đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc và nắm bắt thông tin tương đối tốt. Hãy chú ý hơn đến các chi tiết nhỏ để cải thiện điểm số.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất tốt. Bạn có thể tự tin với phần thi này.
PASSAGE 3
It’s 1:45 a.m, and 21-year-old Thomas Murphy is burning the midnight oil, studying for an important engineering exam he has at 2:00 in the afternoon later today. To stay awake and focused, he’s had two cups of coffee in the last three hours and is now downing a popular energy drink – one that has two to three times the amount of caffeine as a similar sized can of soda. Many students like Murphy, as well as marathon runners, airline pilots, and long-distance travelers, owe their energy – and sometimes their efficiency – to one of humankind’s oldest stimulants: caffeine. [A]
The power to counter physical fatigue and increase alertness is part of the reason caffeine ranks as the world’s most popular mood-altering drug. It is found not only in sodas, energy drinks, coffee, and tea, but also in diet pills, pain relievers (like aspirin), and chocolate bars. Many societies around the world have also created entire rituals around the use of caffeine: afternoon tea in the U.K., the cafe culture of France, the tea ceremony in Japan, and the morning cup of coffee or tea that in many cultures marks the start of the day.
Caffeine is present in many of the foods or drinks we consume, but is it really good for us? Charles Czeisler, a scientist and sleep expert at Harvard Medical School, believes that caffeine causes us to lose sleep, which he says is unhealthy. “Without adequate sleep – the typical eight hours – the human body will not function at its best, physically, mentally, or emotionally.” Too often, Czeisler says, we consume caffeine to stay awake, which later makes it impossible for us to get the rest we need.
Health risks have also been tied to caffeine consumption. Over the years, studies have attributed higher rates of certain types of cancer and bone disease to caffeine consumption. To date, however, there is no proof that caffeine actually causes these diseases. [B]
A number of scientists, including Roland Griffiths, a professor at the Johns Hopkins School of Medicine in the U.S believe that regular caffeine use causes physical dependence. Heavy caffeine users, Griffiths says, exhibit similar behaviors: Their moods fluctuate from high to low; they get mild to severe headaches; or they feel tired or sad when they can’t have a coffee, a soft drink, an energy drink, or a cup of tea. To minimize or stop these feelings, users must consume caffeine – a behavior Griffiths says is characteristic of drug addiction.
Despite these concerns, the general opinion in the scientific community is that caffeine is not dangerous when consumed moderately – for example, having one or two small cups of coffee (about 300 milligrams of caffeine) per day. Furthermore, a lot of current research contradicts long-held negative beliefs about caffeine, and suggests that it may, in fact, have health benefits. For instance, studies have shown that caffeine can help ease muscle pain. Because it is a stimulant, caffeine can also help improve one’s mood. Research has also shown that some caffeinated drinks – specifically certain teas – have disease-fighting chemicals that can help the body fight a number of illnesses, including certain types of cancer. [C]
Moreover, despite its nearly universal use, caffeine has rarely been abused. “With caffeine, overuse tends to stop itself,” says Jack Bergman, a specialist at Harvard Medical School. If you consume too much, “you get uncomfortable, and you don’t want to continue.” [D]
1. What is the passage mainly about?
- the popularity of coffee
- the effects of caffeine on the body
- healthy vs. unhealthy caffeine products
- the dangers of caffeine intake
2. The word ‘downing’ in paragraph 1 could be replaced with
- holding
- waking
- decreasing
- drinking
3. Which group do NOT use caffeine regularly?
- marathon runners
- airline pilots
- students
- city bus travellers
4. The word ‘which’ in paragraph 3 refers to
- adequate sleep
- lack of sleep
- food containing caffeine
- consuming caffeine
5. Which statement would sleep expert Charles Czeisler probably agree with?
- It’s a good idea to consume caffeine if you want to maintain your energy.
- Regular consumption of caffeine will make it difficult for you to get enough rest.
- How caffeine affects your sleep depends on the type of caffeine you consume.
- Caffeine can help you get an adequate amount of sleep if consumed in moderation.
6. Which of the following is NOT listed as a possible side effect of drinking caffeine?
- addiction
- mood changes
- painful headaches
- muscle inflammation
7. What best paraphrases the following sentence in paragraph 7?
Moreover, despite its nearly universal use, caffeine has rarely been abused.
- Even though caffeine is consumed almost the world over, there aren’t many instances of misuse.
- Even though caffeine is often misused, it is consumed almost the world over.
- Despite caffeine’s popularity, addiction isn’t a problem.
- Caffeine is used all over the world, so it is commonly misused.
8. In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit?
Many say they couldn’t live without it.
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
9. Which statement do most scientists agree with?
- caffeine causes loss of sleep.
- caffeine is beneficial in moderate use.
- caffeine leads to certain types of cancer and bone disease
- caffeine leads to severe headaches.
10. The author’s attitude toward caffeine can be best described as
- skeptical
- positive
- negative
- critical
PASSAGE 4
The human body contains muscle, a soft tissue made of protein filaments. The filaments move and flex in different ways to make the muscles contract and expand, supporting the body and producing motion. There are two primary types of muscle – skeletal (“voluntary”) muscle and smooth (“involuntary”) muscle. While the differences between skeletal muscle and smooth muscle are taught in elementary schools around the world, few of us were taught the differences between the two types of skeletal muscles: slow-twitch muscles and fast-twitch muscles. Slow-twitch and fast-twitch muscles are named for the relative speeds at which they twitch, or contract. The two types of muscle have different structures, compositions, actions, and functions and work together to keep our bodies in motion.
Slow-twitch muscles, officially called Type I muscles, are the muscles that provide endurance. They conduct oxygen and contain blood capillaries that give them a red color, so they are sometimes referred to as "red muscles." Slow-twitch muscles do not contract with significant force, but this is offset by the fact that they can contract for longer periods of time. Slow-twitch muscles process fats and carbohydrates to use as fuel for aerobic activity, carrying oxygen for endurance activities, such as long-distance running and cycling.
Fast-twitch muscles, officially called Type II muscles, are the muscles that provide strength and speed. There are two subtypes of fast-twitch muscles. Type IIa muscles are called intermediate fast-twitch muscles, and perform both aerobic and anaerobic functions equally. Type IIb muscles are what are traditionally thought of as fast-twitch muscles. Fast-twitch muscles do not conduct oxygen, and are not red in color but white. They perform anaerobic activity, not aerobic, but contract quickly and forcefully. Fast-twitch muscles are the muscles that build through weightlifting and other use because of the strength of contraction, and are useful in activities requiring speed and force, such as sprinting.
In general, the muscle fibers in our skeletal muscles are divided evenly between slow-twitch and fast-twitch muscles, but each individual’s specific mix of types of muscles is determined genetically. It may be true that we are “born runners,” or weightlifters, or swimmers because of our skeletal and muscle structures. However, humans have the ability to change our bodies and prevail over genetics by altering which form of muscle is prominent in our bodies. The more we work one of the two types, the more dominant that type will become. This can be seen in professional and elite athletes, who have muscle structures that reflect the different demands of their particular sports. For example, sprinters’ bodies and long-distance runners’ bodies reflect the fact that sprinters use fast-twitch muscles more predominately and long-distance runners use slow-twitch muscles more predominately. This change does not happen overnight, however, and is the result of years of specific and intentional training.
This is not to say that elite athletes only focus on one type of muscle and ignore the other type. Even endurance athletes need well-developed fast-twitch muscles, and sprint and weight athletes need well-developed slow-twitch muscles. Many athletes focus on working both types of muscles specifically, through different forms of athletic training, to maintain balance and support for their sports. They also support the development of balanced muscle types through diet, as the two types of muscle are fueled by different nutrients.
11. What is the passage mainly about?
- The two main types of muscle are skeletal and smooth.
- Skeletal and smooth muscles are known as Type I and Type II muscles, respectively.
- The two types of skeletal muscles, slow-twitch and fast-twitch, have different functions and uses.
- Slow-twitch and fast-twitch muscles can be trained with different exercises.
12. The word ‘twitch’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
- shake
- freeze
- run
- fiber
13. The phrase ‘two types’ in paragraph 1 refers to
- smooth and skeletal
- voluntary and involuntary
- Type IIa and Type IIb
- slow-twitch and fast-twitch
14. Why does the author mention the length of contractions in paragraph 2?
- to explain how slow-twitch muscles provide endurance
- to give evidence that slow-twitch muscles are red
- to show why capillaries carry oxygen
- to describe why strength training is necessary
15. The word ‘anaerobic’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
- cardio
- using oxygen
- not using oxygen
- fast
16. Which can be inferred about the color of fast-twitch muscles?
- The color of fast-twitch muscles is determined by the strength of their contractions.
- The color of fast-twitch muscles varies from person to person.
- The color of fast-twitch muscles is red.
- The color of fast-twitch muscles is determined by them not carrying oxygen.
17. Sprinters use more fast-twitch muscles than slow-twitch muscles because
- sprinting involves endurance more than speed and strength
- sprinting involves speed and strength more than endurance
- sprinters are born with more fast-twitch muscles
- sprinters use more oxygen than long-distance runners
18. According to the passage, who probably use fast-twitch muscles most?
- long distance runners
- swimmers
- weightlifters
- cyclists
19. Which is NOT true about fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscles?
- Each person has a mix of slow-twitch and fast-twitch muscles.
- A person can change the mix of fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscles in the body.
- Athletes can train both fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscles.
- Working one type of muscle strengthens that type of muscle.
20. The passage implies that
- athletes have more muscles than non-athletes
- there is a connection between athletic performance and medicine
- athletes cannot train for their sports if they do not understand the differences between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscles
- People can change which form of muscle is prevalent in their bodies with enough work.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy tập trung vào việc xác định ý chính của đoạn văn và tìm kiếm thông tin chi tiết.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc và nắm bắt thông tin tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy chú ý đến các câu hỏi suy luận và ý nghĩa của từ vựng trong ngữ cảnh.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ để chinh phục các bài thi khó hơn.
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1
Questions 1-10
Starry nights and sunflowers, self-portraits and café settings – all painted in bold, intense colors. Today, people around the world immediately recognize these as the work of Vincent Van Gogh, the Dutch painter. [A]
Vincent van Gogh was born on March 30, 1853, in a small village in southern Holland. As a child, he was serious and sensitive. He loved to draw, and his work showed talent, but no one encouraged him to become an artist. Instead, his father thought he should take a “sensible” job – something like a salesclerk or carpenter. As a young adult, he wandered from job to job with little success and very little money, becoming more depressed with each failure. In March 1880, however, just before his 27th birthday, something changed inside Van Gogh. He realized that he was meant to be a painter, and he began to study art in Brussels, receiving a subsidy from his brother Theo, who helped him to live. [B]
In 1886, Van Gogh moved to Paris, hoping to learn more about color techniques being used by Impressionist artists there. Instead of grays and browns, his work began to emphasize blue and red and then yellow and orange. Soon he began to see life differently: Go slow. Stop thinking. Look around. You’ll see something beautiful if you open yourself. These were the principles that guided his art. With his innovative color combinations, Van Gogh wanted to show his viewers how to better appreciate a flower, the night sky, or a person’s face.
Few who lived in Van Gogh’s time appreciated his work, however. Many laughed when they saw his paintings, which hurt the sensitive artist terribly. In February 1888, he moved away from Paris to Arles, a town in southern France. Often he could not eat or sleep, and stayed up into the early morning hours painting. Days passed, and he spoke to no one. Following an argument with fellow artist Paul Gauguin, Van Gogh took a razor and cut off his own earlobe.
He never explained why, but by now, many were convinced that Van Gogh was crazy, and indeed, his mental health started to decline. He began to have attacks during which he would hear strange sounds and think people were trying to hurt him. In the spring of 1889, he was sent to a mental hospital in St. Rémy, a town near Arles.
What exactly was van Gogh suffering from? No one knows for sure, but some now think it may have been a form of manic depression. Whatever his condition, Van Gogh’s illness both inhibited and inspired his creativity. When his attacks came, he could not paint. But during his periods of calm, he was able to complete more than a hundred masterpieces, including the classic Starry Night. “Working on my pictures is almost a necessity for my recovery,” he wrote.
Following his release from the hospital in May 1890, Van Gogh took a room in a town just north of Paris. For the 70 days that he lived there, he produced, on average, a painting a day. Until his death, however, he was unable to sell a single one; today, those paintings would be worth more than a billion U.S. dollars. [C]
It was at this time that Van Gogh either borrowed or stole a gun. On the afternoon of July 27, 1890, he went out to the country and shot himself in the stomach. Two days later, Vincent Van Gogh died at age 37. What caused him to take his own life – his lack of financial success, mental illness, his loneliness? [D]
1. Which statement is NOT true about Van Gogh’s youth?
- He grew up in Holland.
- He was born in a small village.
- His parents encouraged his artistic talent.
- He tried several jobs but was unsuccessful.
2. What is the purpose of paragraph 2?
- to advise when Van Gogh was born
- to describe how Van Gogh became a painter
- to show that Van Gogh was a troubled man
- to show how Van Gogh survived on his own
3. What is the main idea in paragraph 3?
- Van Gogh was unhappy working with painters in Holland.
- Van Gogh’s move to Paris changed his attitude toward art.
- Van Gogh was less successful than other Impressionist painters.
- Van Gogh’s paintings of flowers were very popular in Paris.
4. What best paraphrases the following sentence in paragraph 6? *Working on my pictures is almost a necessity for my recovery.*
- I need to paint in order to heal myself.
- I need to get better so that I can paint again.
- I will improve only if I stop painting.
- I will paint only after I feel better.
5. In paragraph 7, the word ‘took’ is closest in meaning to
- left
- moved into
- stole from
- sold
6. What health problem did Van Gogh have before his death?
- manic depression
- sleeplessness
- heart attack
- people are unsure about his illness.
7. How many paintings did Van Gogh produce during his stay in the town north of Paris?
- 27
- about 70
- 100
- more than 100
8. What is NOT suggested as a possible motive for Van Gogh’s suicide?
- lack of financial success
- mental illness
- his parents’ lack of support
- loneliness
9. What is true about Van Gogh’s paintings?
- They were sold after his death.
- They were loved by people at his time.
- Van Gogh used different colors especially gray and brown in his paintings.
- Most of them were painted during his attacks.
10. In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit? *The question, like so many others in Van Gogh's life, remains unanswered.*
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
PASSAGE 2
Questions 11-20
(The following is a reconstruction of the passage about the Anasazi, based on the questions provided.)
The Anasazi were a culture that inhabited the Four Corners region of the southwestern United States. Early Anasazi were hunters and gatherers, pursuing animals like deer, sheep, and rabbits, and collecting wild plants. Their diet was varied and dependent on seasonal availability.
A significant shift occurred as the Anasazi began to cultivate crops. Farming, especially the growing of corn, beans, and squash, became the cornerstone of their society, providing a more stable food source than hunting and gathering. This agricultural focus allowed them to build more permanent settlements. Turkeys were domesticated, not for meat, but primarily for their feathers, which were used in rituals and for making blankets.
Before settling, some groups were nomadic, moving across the landscape. The first settled period is known as the Early Pueblo Period. During this time, they lived in pit houses and began to master pottery. They crafted jewelry from materials like turquoise and shell, and made various goods from leather.
The Great Pueblo Period, from approximately 1100 to 1300, marked the height of Anasazi culture. It was during this time that they began constructing impressive multi-story buildings made of stone, often plastered with mud. They moved from the mesa tops to alcoves on sheer cliff walls, building complex cliff dwellings. These structures were architectural marvels, with some buildings containing hundreds of rooms. These dwellings often featured T-shaped doorways and ceremonial structures known as kivas. Kivas were circular, subterranean rooms used for religious ceremonies, clan meetings, and as tribal councils.
By 1300, the Anasazi had abandoned their magnificent cliff dwellings at Mesa Verde. The exact reasons remain a mystery, but several theories exist. A prolonged drought and subsequent crop failure likely put immense pressure on their society. Overpopulation may have depleted resources, and there is some evidence of conflict, though widespread war is considered an unlikely primary cause.
11. Which animal was NOT hunted by the Anasazi?
- sheep
- turkeys
- deer
- rabbit
12. What is the most important activity for the Anasazi?
- growing crops
- hunting wild animals
- raising domestic animals
- gathering wild plants
13. The word ‘nomadic’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
- mobile
- cultural
- ethnic
- small
14. During the Early Pueblo period, the Anasazi did NOT make
- pots
- leather goods
- metal tools
- jewelry
15. When did the Anasazi first begin to build houses from stone?
- Before they came to Mesa Verde
- During the Early Pueblo Period
- Between 850 and 1100
- During the Great Pueblo Period
16. Where did the Anasazi move during the Great Pueblo Period?
- To pueblo villages in the south
- Onto the tops of the mesa
- Onto the floors of the canyon
- To settlements on the ledges of cliff walls
17. During the Great Pueblo Period, Anasazi houses were mainly made of
- wood
- mud
- stone
- plaster
18. The word ‘they’ in the original passage's paragraph 5 refers to
- buildings
- dwellings
- doors
- rooms
19. According to the passage, kivas were used for all of the following purposes EXCEPT
- clan meetings
- food storage
- religious ceremonies
- tribal councils
20. According to the passage, the least likely reason that the Anasazi abandoned Mesa Verde was
- drought
- overpopulation
- war
- crop failure
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PASSAGE 3
In April 1870, an art exhibit opened in Paris featuring famous and priceless works of art. However, at the time, no one knew that these paintings would one day be considered masterpieces. The paintings and the painters were virtually unknown at the time and would remain that way for several years.
In the nineteenth century, French art was dominated by the Academy of Fine Arts. Every year the academy held an art show called Le Salon. In 1863, the Academy rejected one of the paintings of Edouard Manet. Manet and a group of other independent artists organized their own show, which they called Salon des Refuses (Salon of the Rejected) opened on April 15,1874. A newspaper critic named louis Leroy visited the gallery and was not pleased with what he saw. A painting by Claude Monet particularly enraged him. Leroy wrote that this piece, and in fact most of the pieces in the show, looked like “impressions” – a term for a preliminary, unfinished sketch made before a painting is done. Leroy’s newspaper review was jokingly called “The Exhibition of the Impressionists.” Within a few years of Leroy’s review, the term Impressionists had clearly stuck, not as a term of derision but as a badge of honor, and a new movement was born.
The Impressionist movement included the French painters Edouard Manet, Claude Monet, Pierre-Auguste Renoir, Edgar Degas, Paul Cezanne, and the American painter Mary Cassatt. The techniques and standards employed within the Impressionist movement varied widely, and though the artists shared a core of values, the real glue which bound the movement together was its spirit of rebellion and independence. This spirit is clear when you compare Impressionist paintings with traditional French paintings of the time. Traditional painters tended to paint rather serious scenes from history and mythology. Many Impressionist paintings feature pleasant scenes of urban life, celebrating the leisure time that the Industrial Revolution had won for the middle class, as shown in Renoir’s luminous painting Luncheon of the Boating Party. Renoir once said that paintings should be “...likable, joyous, and pretty.” He said, “There are enough unpleasant things in this world. We don’t have to paint them as well.”
The Impressionists delighted in painting landscapes (except for Edgar Degas, who preferred painting indoor scenes, and Mary Cassatt, who mainly painted portraits of mothers and children). [A]. Traditional painters, too, painted landscapes, but their landscapes tended to be somber and dark. [B] The Impressionists’ landscapes sparkle with light. [C] Impressionists insisted that their works be “true to nature.” [D] When they painted landscapes, they carried their paints and canvases outdoors in order to capture the ever-changing light. Traditional painters generally made preliminary sketches outside but worked on the paintings themselves in their studios.
“Classic” Impressionist paintings are often easy to spot because of the techniques used by the painters. For an example, colors should be dropped pure on the canvas instead of getting mixed on the palette and most Impressionsts mixed their paints as little as possible. The traditional technique at the time was to make sketches or outlines on the subject before painting them. Unlike traditional painters, Impressionists applied one layer of paint on top of the last one without waiting for the paint to dry. These techniques created paintings that seemed strange and unfinished to the general public when they were first painted, but are much loved in our time.
Question 1
The word ‘virtually’ in the passage is closest in meaning to the word
- almost
- infinitely
- seemingly
- forever
Question 2
What is true about the art show Salon des Refuses?
- It was more popular with visitors and critics than the “Le Salon” show.
- It made the painters and paintings shown there instantly successful.
- Its organizers refused to display paintings by Edouard Manet.
- It a featured famous paintings by painters of a new movement.
Question 3
Why did Louis Leroy use the term “Impressionists”?
- because he thought that these artists only got a quick impression of what they painted.
- because he thought that all the paintings at the show looked like unfinished drawings.
- because he thought that the name would help those artists become famous.
- because he thought that the painting Impression: Sunset was the best painting at the show.
Question 4
What best paraphrases the following sentence?
*The techniques and standards employed within the Impressionist movement varied widely, and though the artists shared a core of values, the real glue which bound the movement together was its spirit of rebellion and independence.*
- Although there were artistic differences among the Impressionists, they were united by an independent spirit and shared values.
- The core of values shared by the Impressionists was the most important connection between them.
- At first the Impressionist movement was held together by a shared set of techniques and standards, but in time they rebelled against these core values.
- Although the Impressionists’ values differed, their techniques and standards helped create a strong, independent spirit.
Question 5
Renoir’s painting *Luncheon of the Boating Party* is an example of
- an industrial scene
- a study of some urban buildings
- a picture of people enjoying their leisure time
- a traditional French painting
Question 6
What did the painters Edgar Degas and Mary Cassatt have in common?
- They both painted portraits of children and mothers.
- Neither of them was originally from France.
- Neither of them was primarily interested in landscapes.
- They both preferred painting unpleasant scenes.
Question 7
When traditional painters worked on landscape paintings, they
- studied the ever-changing light
- did not make any preliminary sketches
- never left their studios
- sketched outdoors but painted indoors
Question 8
In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit?
*This play of light can be seen in Claude Monet’s paintings* Water Lilies, Green Harmony, *and* The Bridge at Argenteuil.
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
Question 9
The word ‘spot’ in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to
- paint
- identify
- admire
- ignore
Question 10
The phrase ‘the last one’ in the passage refers to
- an artist
- a painting
- a brush stroke
- a layer of paint
PASSAGE 4
In many countries, access to capital markets and low-interest loans is limited to large corporations and government monopolies. Small businesses and suppliers do not have access to liquid cash, and run the risk of failing to fulfil orders because they do not have the capital to purchase supplies for the products they make. As a result of this credit crisis, a practice called factoring has become popular in many areas of the world.
In factoring, a bank or financial organization – called a factor – gives a supplier cash in exchange for the right to collect payment when the supplier delivers an order to a buyer. In effect, the factor is buying the supplier’s Accounts Receivables at a discount off the face value of the accounts. The supplier benefits by receiving cash more quickly than it could from the buyer, but does not receive full payment for the accounts. The factor takes on a huge amount of risk by buying a supplier’s Accounts Receivables, as each individual buyer must be researched to determine what the risk is of that buyer defaulting on payment. In some cases, these buyers are so small or obscure that risk cannot be determined, and a factor is buying a complete unknown. In this case, if a buyer defaults, the factor may go back to the supplier and ask for compensation for the default. Thus, factoring is risky for both the supplier and the factor.
In recent years, a new practice called reverse factoring has become increasingly popular because it shifts the anchor from supplier to buyer to virtually eliminate risk from the transaction. In reverse factoring, instead of buying a supplier’s Accounts Receivables, a factor provides loans to a single large buyer’s suppliers.
For example, a large corporation with an excellent credit rating and an extremely low chance of defaulting will have a list of suppliers. Many of these suppliers are small businesses without adequate access to liquid cash. When a factor contracts with the large buyer to supply payments to suppliers, the transaction works as follows: 1) the supplier signs an agreement to be entered into the factor’s system, 2) the supplier delivers an order to the buyer, 3) the buyer approves the delivery and signs off with the factor, 4) the factor pays the supplier a percentage (usually 80 to 90 percent) of the price of the order immediately, 5) the buyer pays the factor for the order at whatever terms the agreement states, 6) the factor pays the supplier the remaining balance for the order. The factor takes a percentage of the transaction and charges interest to the buyer.
By originating the transaction with a large, risk-free buyer instead of a supplier, reverse factoring improves all three parties’ positions and liquidity. The factor earns a steady interest rate with very little risk, and by working with large buyers, has access to large volumes of business at one time. The buyers gain the ability to pay on better terms for lower interest than they would with traditional capital market structures. Suppliers get paid far more rapidly and at a far lower interest rate than they would be able to with a traditional factoring or capital market arrangement.
Question 11
Why has factoring increased as a practice in countries around the world?
- it has a common language
- it attracts investors to foreign countries
- it solves a problem with credit
- it requires large amounts of land
Question 12
The word ‘capital’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
- financial
- principal
- important
- knowledgeable
Question 13
The word ‘defaults’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
- does not ask
- does not know
- does not pay
- does not loan
Question 14
What is the benefit of reverse factoring?
- it removes risk almost entirely from the transaction
- it does not involve an exchange of money
- it can be done on a boat or other sailing vessel
- it can be done by anyone, regardless of income
Question 15
How is reverse factoring different from traditional factoring?
- Both suppliers and factors might be at risk.
- Factors buy suppliers’ Accounts Receivables
- Suppliers receive cash directly from buyers.
- Suppliers can receive money from the factors contracted with buyers.
Question 16
The word ‘liquid’ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
- accessible
- wet
- complex
- thin
Question 17
In reverse factoring, after the factor pays the supplier a percentage of the order amount
- the supplier officially enters the factor’s system
- the buyer pays the factor for the order
- the supplier delivers the order to the buyer
- the factor contracts with the buyer
Question 18
The phrase ‘all three parties’ in paragraph 5 refers to
- bank, factor, buyer
- factor, bank, supplier
- supplier, bank, product
- factor, buyer, supplier
Question 19
Why does the author mention the benefits of reverse factoring to the factor in paragraph 6?
- prove that there is not a strong connection between a role in the reverse factoring transaction and the benefits received
- show that the factor benefits more from reverse factoring than the supplier or the buyer
- support the topic sentence of the paragraph that states that all three parties benefit from reverse factoring
- connect the concept of factoring more closely with reverse factoring
Question 20
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
- There are multiple ways to finance purchases from suppliers.
- A factor must be prequalified to borrow money from a supplier.
- Reverse factoring only works in European countries.
- Small suppliers are more likely to have access to credit than small buyers.
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Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1
Questions 1-10
Never before have so many people packed into cities – places such as Los Angeles, Istanbul, Tokyo, and Lima – that are regularly affected by earthquakes. Located near the edge of Earth’s huge, shifting plates, these cities face the risk of death and economic disaster from large quakes – and from the tsunamis, fires, and other destruction they often cause. We understand earthquakes better than we did a century ago. Now, scientists would like to predict them, but is this possible?
In Japan, government scientists say they have an answer to the question. [A] “We believe that earthquake prediction is possible.” says Koshun Yamaoka, a scientist at the Earthquake Research Institute at the University of Tokyo. Earthquakes follow a pattern; they have observable signs, Yamaoka believes. In fact, Japan has already predicted where its next great earthquake will be: Tokai, a region along the Pacific coast about 160 kilometers (100 miles) southwest of Tokyo. Here, two plate boundaries have generated huge earthquakes every 100 to 150 years. And it could be a massive quake. The section along Tokai hasn’t had a major quake since 1854. The theory is that strain is building up in this region, and that it’s time for this zone to reduce its stress. Unfortunately, this is more a forecast than a prediction. It’s one thing to say that an earthquake is likely to happen in a high-risk area. It’s another to predict exactly where and when the quake will occur.
The desire for a precise prediction of time and place has led to another theory: the idea of “pre-slip.” Naoyuki Kato, a scientist at the Earthquake Research Institute, says his laboratory experiments show that before a fault in the Earth’s crust finally breaks and causes an earthquake, it slips just a little. If we can detect these early slips taking place deep in the Earth’s crust, we may be able to predict the next big quake.
Clues in the Desert
Scientists working in Parkfield, California, in the U.S. are also trying to see if predicting earthquakes is possible. They’ve chosen the town of Parkfield not only because the San Andreas Fault runs through it but because it’s known for having earthquakes quite regularly – approximately every 22 years. In the late 1980s, scientists in Parkfield decided to study the fault to see if there were any warning signs prior to a quake. [B] To do this, they drilled deep into the fault and set up equipment to register activity. Then they waited for the quake. [C]
Year after year, nothing happened. When a quake did finally hit on September 28, 2004, it was years off schedule, but most disappointing was the lack of warning signs. Scientists reviewed the data but could find no evidence of anything unusual preceding the September 28th quake. It led many to believe that perhaps earthquakes really are random events. Instead of giving up, though, scientists in Parkfield dug deeper into the ground. By late summer 2005, they had reached the fault’s final depth of three kilometers (two miles), where they continued collecting data, hoping to find a clue.
[D]. In an article published in the July 2008 journal Nature, the researchers in Parkfield claimed to have detected small changes in the fault shortly before an earthquake hit. What had they noticed? Just before a quake, the cracks in the fault had widened slightly. Scientists registered the first changes ten hours before an earthquake of 3.0 on the Richter scale hit: they identified identical signs two hours before a 1.0 quake – demonstrating that perhaps the “preslip” theory is correct. In other words, it may in fact be possible to predict an earthquake.
1. What is the passage mainly about?
- earthquake prediction failures
- the Japanese government’s work on earthquakes
- efforts to predict when an earthquake will happen
- the Parkfield investigations
2. In the first paragraph, what best paraphrases the sentence “Never before have so many people packed into cities – places such as Los Angeles, Istanbul, Tokyo, and Lima – that are regularly affected by earthquakes.”?
- Many people who live in big cities have experienced earthquakes.
- Cities crowded with people are more likely to have serious earthquakes.
- Some of the biggest cities in the world suffer damage from earthquakes.
- More people than ever live in cities that are affected by earthquakes.
3. The word ‘detect’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
- distinguish
- cover
- discover
- predict
4. In paragraph 4, what does ‘do this’ refer to?
- wait for an earthquake
- study the fault
- predict an earthquake
- set up equipment
5. In paragraph 5, the word ‘reviewed’ could be replaced with
- recorded
- deleted
- saw
- studied
6. What is true about the pre-slip theory?
- It says an earthquake always occur in a high-risk area.
- It was first mentioned by the US scientists.
- The study of slips before an earthquake help predict the following earthquake.
- the theory is that the Earth’s crust has many faults after an earthquake occur.
7. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
- A major earthquake occurs in Tokai every 100-150 years.
- Scientists believe that the “pre-slip” theory could help predict earthquakes.
- Data supporting the “pre-slip” theory was found in Parkfield.
- There was a major earthquake in Parkfield in late summer 2005.
8. According to Parkfield scientists, how did cracks in the fault change before an earthquake hit?
- They became much wider.
- They became slightly narrower.
- They became slightly wider.
- They became much narrower.
9. In which space (marked [A], [B], [C] and [D] in the passage) will the following sentence fit? *And then they found something.*
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
10. Which of the following could best describe the message that the author wants to pass to readers?
- Earthquakes occur in crowded cities in the world.
- Earthquakes are not entirely random but possible to predict.
- Earthquake research has had a long and successful history.
- It is unlikely we will ever be able to predict the Earth’s movement accurately.
PASSAGE 2
Questions 11-20
As different countries have different currencies of money, an international market exists for these currencies. “Exchange rates” refers to the formulas used to determine how much any one country’s currency can be bought or sold for relative to another country’s currency. Some currencies, including the U.S. dollar, the European euro, and the Japanese yen, are considered standard currencies, so the prices of other less-popular currencies are often expressed by exchange rates compared to them. Exchange rates are determined primarily by the movement of the markets, which means that when there is more demand for one particular currency, the price of that currency will go up, and when there is less demand for a currency, the price of that currency will go down.
Because exchange rates fluctuate, companies that do business internationally need to be mindful of the way they structure purchases and sales and what currency they use. For example, if an American company is selling something to a Japanese company, both companies need to think carefully about whether the sale should be transacted in U.S. dollars or Japanese yen (or some other currency entirely). It can be very costly for a company to make the wrong decision. In general, the company whose currency is being used for the transaction bears less risk than the company which is converting their currency for the sale. So if the two companies agree that the Japanese company will pay the U.S. company 500,000 U.S. dollars, the U.S. company will still receive that sum whether the exchange rate for yen to U.S. dollars goes up or down. In contrast, the Japanese company has to buy U.S. dollars to pay the bill.
The risks of doing transactions across currencies is called exposure. There are three types of exposure companies doing business internationally must contend with. The first, translation exposure, is simply a matter of the risk involved in converting one currency to another and how that is reflected in a company’s statement of profits and losses. For example, a company that sells many of its products in U.S. dollars but has to report its earnings to shareholders in Euros will look like it has made less money simply because the dollar is weaker than the euro.
The second type of exposure, transaction exposure, is described in the example above of the Japanese company and the American company making a sale. Transaction exposure is really a time problem. Between the time you agree to the deal and the time you have to pay for or receive money for the deal, what will happen to the exchange rate?
The third type of exposure is called economic exposure. [A] This refers to the decisions a company makes about how to structure their business to take advantage of exchange rates. [B] For instance, a company that sells its products in a country with a stronger currency but manufactures them in a country with a weaker currency benefits from the exchange rates on both sides of the transaction. [C] However, there is always the risk that the stronger currency will get weaker, which means the sales revenue will go down or the weaker currency will get stronger, which in turn means that the manufacturing costs will go up. [D]
11. What is the passage mainly about?
- how exchange rates are determined
- transaction exposure for companies
- purchasing power parity and interest rate parity
- to describe the concepts of exchange rates for currency and how that affects international business
12. The word ‘standard’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
- European
- foreign
- common
- inflated
13. The phrase ‘that currency’ in paragraph 1 refers to
- the U.S. dollar
- an undetermined amount
- the currency in greater demand
- the currency in less demand
14. The word ‘fluctuate’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
- go up and down
- cross international borders
- be indecisive
- stay at one level
15. What can be mentioned about the Japanese company doing business with the U.S. company in dollars in paragraph 2?
- The U.S. company is buying something from the Japanese company in dollars.
- The U.S. company is buying something from the Japanese company in yen.
- The Japanese company is buying something from the U.S. company in yen.
- The Japanese company is buying something from the U.S. company in dollars.
16. Why does the author mention the words translation exposure, transaction exposure, and economic exposure in the passage?
- to give an example of what can happen when the exchange rate goes unexpectedly
- to list the three types of exposure a company doing business internationally faces
- to explain the process of causing exchange rates to fluctuate
- to question the assumption that there is no risk in doing business internationally
17. It can be inferred from the passage that
- things made in the United States are paid for in U.S. dollars
- companies that are not located in the United States may need to purchase things in dollars
- companies can minimize translation exposure by purchasing in U.S. dollars
- using hedges to protect from exchange rate risk is illegal
18. All of the following can be inferred from the passage EXCEPT
- Currencies that are purchased more often will be stronger than currencies that are not in demand.
- Some currencies tend to be stronger than others.
- The U.S. dollar is stronger than the Canadian dollar.
- There is no one universal currency used by all countries worldwide.
19. The company whose home currency is the currency chosen for payment bears
- more risk, because there is no way to determine what the final payment will be
- more risk, because the other company will get a better exchange rate
- less risk, because the other company controls how much it will pay
- less risk, because that company will receive the exact amount of money specified in the deal
20. In which space (marked [A], [B], [C] and [D] in the passage) will the following sentence fit? *If either the amount of money received from sales or the amount of money required to produce products changes, the company’s profits are affected.*
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Điểm số cho thấy bạn cần củng cố các kỹ năng đọc hiểu cơ bản. Hãy luyện tập đọc các đoạn văn ngắn và xác định ý chính.
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PASSAGE 3
Despite modern society’s heavy dependence on fossil fuels for energy, most people are aware that the supply of these fuels is finite. As oil, in particular, becomes more costly and difficult to find, researchers are looking at alternative energy sources, including solar, wind, and even nuclear power. But which substitute – if any – is the right one?
Solar
Solar panels catch energy directly from the sun and convert it into electricity. One of the world’s largest solar power stations is located near Leipzig, Germany, where more than 33,000 solar panels have the capacity to generate enough energy to power about 1,800 homes. But unlike the burning of fossil fuels, the process used to create all that solar energy produces no emissions.
Today, however, solar power provides less than one percent of the world’s energy, primarily because the cost of the panels is still very high. And price is only one issue. Clouds and darkness also cause solar panels to produce less energy, which requires one to have additional power sources (such as batteries) available.
Some scientists think the solution to this problem can be found in space – which they say is the ideal place to gather energy from the sun. With no clouds and no nighttime, a space-based solar power station could operate constantly producing continuous, clean energy which is cheaper than other fuels and sufficient for everyone on Earth.
Wind
Wind – the fastest-growing alternative energy source – is another way of collecting energy from the sun. Wind is caused by the sun’s heat rather than its light, and therefore, unlike solar power, it works well even on cloudy days.
All over Europe, incentives designed to decrease the dependence on oil and coal have led to a steep increase in wind-powered energy. Today, Europe leads the world in wind power, producing almost 35,000 megawatts, the equivalent of 35 large coal-powered plants. North America remains a distant second, producing just over 7,000 megawatts.
Despite its success, some oppose wind power development, saying the turbines are both noisy and ugly. There are other challenges, too. If the wind doesn’t blow, the turbines are not able to produce adequate energy. In contrast, a strong wind can create too much power leading the energy company to sell the extra power at a much-reduced rate.
What’s needed for both wind and solar is a way to store a large energy surplus. However, most systems are still decades away from making this a reality. On the plus side, both wind and solar enable people to generate their own energy where they live: People can have their own windmills or solar panels, with batteries for calm days.
Nuclear
In the 1970s, nuclear was seen as the main energy alternative because of its cheap production and no carbon emissions. For a number of years in the 1980s and ‘90s, however, use of nuclear power declined due to accidents, concerns about nuclear waste storage and disposal, and high construction costs. However, nowadays worldwide, about 432 plants now generate 13 percent of the planet’s electric power, and some countries have invested heavily in nuclear energy. France, for instance, gets three quarters of its electricity from nuclear power, the highest of any country. China has started to build one or two new plants a year, and India has also begun to utilize nuclear energy on a large scale.
In the end, is any of these sources alone the answer to our current energy problems? The short answer is no, but used in some combination – along with other power sources – we may find ways to reduce and eventually eliminate our dependence on fossil fuels.
Question 1
What is the passage mainly about?
- possible replacements for fossil fuels for energy
- the various causes of the energy crisis the world over
- the benefits of solar power over other other alternate energy sources
- problems caused by our overdependence on fossil fuels
Question 2
The word ‘it’ in paragraph 2 refers to
- electricity
- the sun
- energy
- panel
Question 3
In paragraph 2, the word ‘emissions’ is closest in meaning to
- panels
- electricity
- pollution
- accidents
Question 4
Which of these statements about solar energy is stated in the text?
- Solar is currently the biggest contributor to the world’s energy.
- Solar energy is cheap to produce due to the low price of solar panels.
- Solar energy is not enough for use on cloudy days.
- Solar energy can have a harmful effect on the environment.
Question 5
What is said about electricity from space-based solar power station?
- It is as clean as other sources of energy.
- It provides less than 1% of the world’s energy.
- It can provide enough energy that everyone in the world needs.
- It is more expensive to produce than other sources.
Question 6
Which region produces the largest amount of wind power?
- China
- Japan
- North America
- Europe
Question 7
What is NOT mentioned as a disadvantage of wind power?
- Strong winds produce too much power.
- Strong winds can damage the turbines.
- The turbines create a lot of noise.
- The turbines are seen as ugly.
Question 8
Which of these statements is true about nuclear energy?
- It is a more expensive form of energy than coal or gas.
- It produces a lot of carbon waste.
- Safety concerns made nuclear energy unpopular for several decades.
- Nuclear energy is becoming less popular than other energy sources.
Question 9
Which country gets most of its power from nuclear power?
- France
- Germany
- India
- China
Question 10
What best paraphrases the following sentence in the last paragraph? "In the end, is any of these sources alone the answer to our current energy problems?"
- Is there an energy source that can solve all of our energy problems on its own?
- Can our current energy problems be solved by making sure we stop burning fossil fuel?
- Can we solve our energy problems by using all the alternative energy sources together?
- Is finding a new alternate to fossil fuels the only way to solve our energy problems?
PASSAGE 4
In the 1966 science-fiction film Fantastic Voyage, a team of scientists and doctors are shrunk and injected into the body of an injured man to save his life. The tiny crew travels through the body’s dangerous environment to locate and repair the damaged part of the man’s body. Eventually, the group manages to complete their task and the man awakens, fully cured.
[A] But what if it were possible to cure a disease like cancer using tiny particles injected into a person – particles that would not only find the cancer, but also destroy it without harming anything else in the body? Although it may seem like science fiction, tools like this are now being developed and may, in fact, become common in the near future – thanks to research currently being done in the field of nanotechnology. The main thing to know about nanotechnology is that it’s small – really small. The prefix nano refers to a nanometer, which is one-billionth of a meter. A comma on a page of a book or magazine, for instance, may be more than half a million nanometers wide. [B]
Researcher Ted Sargent, a leader in the field of nanotechnology, describes how using quantum dots – particles that are a few nanometers in size – will help diagnose a disease. The particles, Sargent explains, shine brightly when exposed to UV light and can be inserted into the body. They can also be programmed to bond only to a certain type of cell – a particular cancer cell, for example. Doctors can then use a camera and look for the colored particles, which will help them determine where cancer cells are growing in a person’s body.
[C] Using this technology, it will be possible to detect cancer at a stage when there are perhaps only a thousand bad cells. Compare this to what happens today: doctors can diagnose cancer only after the dangerous cells have multiplied into the millions and developed into a tumor. One of the advantages of detecting and treating cancer at an early stage is that the cells are less likely to become resistant to drug treatment. In later stages, cancer cells often change and adapt to certain drugs so rapidly that many medicines become ineffective.
Once a certain type of cancer is detected, nanotechnology will also radically improve the way it is treated. Right now, most cancer treatments kill not only the cancerous cells but the healthy ones as well, causing a number of side effects in people. Nanoparticles, on the other hand, will allow doctors to attack cancerous tumors without disturbing healthy cells by delivering cancer-killing drugs to the bad cells only. A second method will be to destroy cancer cells (identified by nanoparticles) using laser rays. Ultimately, technologies like this will allow doctors to deliver cancer treatment earlier, faster, and more thoroughly, with fewer side effects. [D]
Unfortunately, even though nanoparticles have great medical potential, there are serious concerns that these same materials could have negative environmental and health effects. In recent studies, researchers found that half the human cells died after exposing lab-grown human cells to water containing large amounts of nanoparticles.
Because nanotechnology is so potentially useful, many scientists don’t think research into its many uses should be stopped; learning more about nanotechnology should remain a priority. But scientists do believe that governments should allocate more money for safety-related studies – to make sure that large concentrations of nanoparticles do not get into our food and water supplies and cause serious problems.
Question 11
What is the passage mainly about?
- a fantastic voyage within the human body
- how nanotechnology can be used in medical science
- the dangers and side effects of nanotechnology
- the various ways of detecting cancer
Question 12
How big is a nanometer?
- the size of a comma
- the same size as a quantum dot
- a billion nanoparticles wide
- one-billionth of a meter
Question 13
The word ‘they’ in paragraph 3 refers to
- quantum dots
- cells
- doctors
- UV rays
Question 14
In paragraph 3, the word ‘determine’ could be replaced by
- discover
- report
- miss
- hide
Question 15
What is NOT a problem with most cancer treatments instead of nanotechnology?
- They cause many side effects
- They kill both cancerous and healthy cells.
- They use laser rays which are harmful to people’s health.
- They might be ineffective in later stages because of drug resistance.
Question 16
Exposing human cells to large amounts of nanoparticles
- has no effect
- should remain a priority
- is how cancer can be treated
- can result in 50% cell death
Question 17
Which of these statements about nanotechnology is NOT true?
- It could lead to early diagnosis of cancer.
- Doctors could potentially use it to destroy cancer cells.
- It will allow doctors to avoid destroying healthy cells.
- It is completely safe for humans and animals.
Question 18
Why do scientists concern about using nanotechnology to cure cancer?
- It causes many side effects.
- It costs a lot of money to use it.
- It has bad effects on the environment and people’s health.
- It has too little research about it.
Question 19
What is the main idea of paragraph 7?
- Nanotechnology has not proved useful, and most scientists want the research halted.
- Scientists want to see research into nanotechnology continue, but carefully.
- Nanotechnology is so useful that many governments are investing in research.
- Many scientists think that nanotechnology is too dangerous to be permitted.
Question 20
In which space (marked [A], [B], [C] and [D] in the passage) will the following sentence fit? "Such an idea, while fun, sounds extraordinary to many."
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
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Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10
In pursuit of the perfect beach, travel writer Stanley Stewart heads to Brazil, where he discovers some of the world’s most beautiful sandy escapes.
I’m standing on Rio de Janeiro’s Copacabana beach, one of Brazil’s – and the world’s –most famous stretches of sand. As I watch life go by here in all its varied forms, I’ve come to realize that any understanding of Brazil really begins on its beaches. In this vibrant, multicultural country, the beach is not just a place; it’s a state of mind – a way of thinking and living.
Rio alone, I’m told, has over 70 beaches, each with its own community: Some are for bodybuilders, others are for senior citizens, still others are popular with parents and children. But Rio’s beaches are just the starting point for my exploration of Brazil’s Atlantic coastline, which at more than 8,000 kilometers (5,000 miles), and with more than 2,000 beaches, is the longest in the world. Every Brazilian has his or her own ideas of the perfect beach and is eager to tell you where to find it. I’m happy to take people’s advice, but my ultimate goal is to find my own dream beach.
I head to a place said to have some of Brazil’s best coastline: the state of Bahia in the northeast. Portuguese settlers established themselves at Bahia’s present-day capital, Salvador da Bahia, in 1549. Over the centuries, people of many races have arrived and intermarried here, creating a distinctive cultural mix, which influences Bahia’s language, religion, cuisine, music, and dance.
I’d been told that one of Bahia’s best beaches – Prainha – lies just south of Salvador, near the town of Itacare. On arriving at Prainha’s beach, I discover its golden sand lined by a row of perfect palm trees, moving softly in the ocean breeze. Under the moon, silver waves roll onto the sand. As I enter the water, I have the feeling of swimming through moonlight. Prainha’s beauty is magnificent – its perfect curves and graceful lines are like something you might see in a postcard. But for me, it’s a little too perfect. The beach I’m searching for needs to be a little wilder...
I continue my search, heading north to one of Brazil’s legendary beaches: Jericoacoara. Twenty years ago, only a handful of people were living in Jeri. Today it’s an international destination, considered one of the best beach hangouts in the world (especially if you like windsurfing). It attracts visitors from Tokyo to Toronto and has grown from a small village into a lively little town. Despite the changes, Jeri hasn’t been spoiled by tourists, mostly because of its isolated location – it’s at least five hours from any airport.
Everyone in Jeri rents a beach buggy, which comes with a driver. I tell my driver to take me as far along the coast as he can. We drive for three hours, finally arriving at Maceió, a fisherman’s beach. Boats lie on their sides while nets hang out to dry on lines between fishermen’s houses. We eat on the beach and later rest in hammocks near the table. It’s a great day on an amazing beach. How can it possibly get any better? I wonder. But I have one final place to visit.
Of the many beach destinations in this country, there is one that all Brazilians hold in high regard – the islands of Fernando de Noronha. More than a dozen beautiful beaches ring the island of Fernando alone, three of which rank among the top ten in Brazil. The islands of Fernando de Noronha lie a few hundred kilometers out in the Atlantic. For years, people were prohibited from visiting these islands because they were used as a prison and later by the army. Today the islands are a national park and UNESCO World Heritage Site, rich with diverse bird and sea life.
1. What is the passage mainly about?
- Brazilian beach tourism
- an educational tour of South America’s beaches
- the author’s search for the dream beach
- little-known beaches of South America
2. Which is NOT a group of popular visitors to Rio?
- newly married couples
- bodybuilders
- parents with children
- old people
3. What best paraphrases the following sentences in paragraph 3: "Every Brazilian has his or her own ideas of the perfect beach and is eager to tell you where to find it. I’m happy to take people’s advice, but my ultimate goal is to find my own dream beach."
- I don’t like the beaches Brazilian people tell me so I try to find my own dream beach.
- Brazil have so many beautiful beaches that I cannot visit all of them.
- Brazilian people are proud of their beaches and tell me to visit their perfect beaches.
- I feel pleased to know beautiful beaches recommended by Brazilian but what I like most is to seek for the best beach for myself.
4. What is the purpose of paragraph 4?
- to describe Bahia’s many beaches
- to explain why Bahia has the perfect beach
- to describe Bahia’s music and dance scene
- to give information on Bahia’s cultural background
5. In paragraph 6, the word ‘legendary’ can be replaced with
- oldest
- isolated
- picturesque
- famous
6. Which of these beaches is the most isolated?
- Copacabana
- Prainha
- Jericoacoara
- Maceió
7. Which of these beaches is famous for golden sand and palm trees?
- Copacabana
- Prainha
- Jericoacoara
- Maceió
8. The islands of Fernando de Noronha now
- contain a prison
- are a national park
- are used by the army
- have many beach buggies
9. In paragraph 8, the phrase ‘a dozen’ is closest in meaning to
- a small number of
- many
- a few
- about twelve
10. Which type of beach would probably appeal to the author the most?
- busy, near a city, with lots of beach activities
- warm, isolated, a little wild, with rich animal life
- trendy, with a distinctive cultural mix
- crowded, with music and dance, blue water and palm trees
PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20
In September 1994, a violent disease erupted among a group of racehorses in a small town in Australia. The first victim was a female horse that was last seen eating grass beneath a fruit tree. One of her caretakers noticed that the horse didn’t appear to be well, and brought the animal back to her stable for observation. Within hours, the horse’s health declined rapidly and died two days later, leaving the cause of her death uncertain. Had she been bitten by a snake, or eaten something poisonous? Within two weeks, most of the other horses in the stable became ill and died as well. Meanwhile, the trainer and his assistant also became ill and within days, the trainer was dead, too. Laboratory analysis finally discovered the root of the problem: The horses and men had been infected by a previously unknown virus, which doctors eventually labeled Hendra. This virus had originated in bats that lived in the tree where the first horse had been eating grass. The virus passed from the bats to the horse, which then transmitted the virus to other horses and to people – with disastrous results.
Infectious disease is all around us. Disease-causing agents, such as viruses, usually have specific targets. Some viruses affect only humans. Other viruses live in or affect only animals. Problems start when animal viruses are able to infect people as well, a process known as zoonosis. When an animal virus passes to a human, the results can be fatal. Often, our immune systems are not accustomed to these viruses, and are unable to stop them before they harm us and even kill us.
In the last three decades, more than 30 zoonotic diseases – the kind that live only in animals but somehow pass to people – have emerged around the globe. HIV is an example; it evolved from a virus originally carried by African monkeys and later, chimps. Today, conservative estimates suggest that HIV has infected more than 70 million people in the past three decades, though this number may be higher. SARS, a type of flu that jumped from chickens to humans, is another type of zoonotic disease.
But how do these viruses – like Hendra, SARS, and HIV – pass from animals to humans? Contact is crucial. Human destruction of animal habitats, for example, is forcing wild animals to move closer to the places people live – putting humans at risk for exposure to animal viruses. The closer humans are to animals, the greater the risk of being bitten, scratched, or exposed to animal waste, which can enable a virus to pass from an animal to a human. Raising animals (for example, on a farm) or keeping certain kinds of wild animals (like monkeys) as pets increases the risk of exposure. Eating animals that are diseased can also result in a virus being transmitted.
The factor that is probably most responsible for the spread of zoonotic diseases worldwide is international travel. In 1999, for example, a deadly disease appeared in the United States. There were several incidences of both birds and people becoming sick and dying in New York City, and doctors couldn’t explain why. Subsequently, they discovered that the deaths had been caused by the same thing: the West Nile virus, found typically in birds and transmitted by mosquitoes that live in parts of northern Africa. Somehow this virus – probably carried by an infected mosquito or bird on a plane or ship – arrived in the U.S.
11. What is the passage mainly about?
- the unexplained deaths of horses and humans
- the symptoms of zoonotic diseases seen in humans
- the effect of international travel on the spread of disease
- the rise in the spread of viruses from animals to humans
12. The word ‘transmitted’ in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by
- transferred
- spread
- taken
- converted
13. What caused the Australian racehorses to get sick?
- a virus spread by snakes
- a virus spread by bats
- a virus spread by humans
- a virus spread by a fruit tree
14. The word ‘fatal’ in paragraph 2 could be replaced by
- scary
- painful
- harmful
- deadly
15. What animals have HIV virus?
- mosquitoes
- bats
- chickens
- monkeys
16. What is the purpose of paragraph 3?
- to discuss the rise in zoonotic diseases in the past three decades
- to inform the reader where the HIV virus came from and how it evolved
- to give examples and explain the meaning of zoonotic diseases
- to compare the spread of HIV and SARS with other zoonotic diseases
17. In paragraph 5, the phrase ‘a deadly disease’ refers to
- Hendra
- Ebola
- West Nile virus
- HIV
18. Which virus is NOT mentioned in the passage as being zoonotic?
- SARS
- HIV
- Flu
- Hendra
19. Which is the main reason for the increase in zoonotic diseases?
- raising animals
- destruction of habitat
- eating animals
- international travel
20. What topic can be discussed after this passage?
- causes of zoonotic diseases
- effects of zoonotic diseases
- solutions to zoonotic diseases
- animals causing zoonotic diseases
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng đọc hiểu cơ bản. Hãy luyện tập đọc các đoạn văn ngắn và xác định ý chính.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc và nắm bắt thông tin tốt. Để cải thiện, hãy chú ý hơn đến các câu hỏi suy luận và từ vựng trong ngữ cảnh.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất vững chắc. Bạn đã sẵn sàng để chinh phục các bài đọc phức tạp hơn.
PASSAGE 3
Today we know that the mind is a product of the brain, but how exactly does this 1.5-kilo (three-pound) piece of flesh create a mind that allows you to think about yourself, experience happiness and anger, or remember events that happened 20 minutes or 20 years ago? This isn’t a new question. Today, however, powerful new techniques for visualizing the sources of thought, emotion, behavior, and memory are transforming the way we understand the brain and the mind it creates.
Have you ever stopped and thought, “What’s wrong with me today? I just don’t feel like myself”? This self-awareness – the ability to think about yourself and how you’re feeling – is an important part of being human. This part of your mind has its origins in the prefrontal cortex – a region of your brain just behind your forehead that extends to about your ears. Before this area began to function (around age two), you didn’t understand that you were a separate entity with your own identity. In time, as this part of your brain developed, you became more aware of yourself and your thoughts and feelings.
Perhaps one of the most important factors involved in shaping our identity is memory. Most scientists define it as a stored pattern of connections between neurons in the brain. Every feeling you remember, every thought you think, alters the connections within the vast network of brain cells, and memories are reinforced, weakened, or newly formed. Most people’s earliest memories reach back to about age three or so. Very few people recall anything before this time because the part of the brain that helps form long-term memories (the hippocampus) was not yet mature, or fully developed. This doesn’t mean earlier memories don’t exist in your mind, though. Some scientists believe highly emotional memories might be stored in another structure in the brain (the amygdala) that may be functional at birth. Though these memories are not accessible to the conscious mind, they might still influence the way we feel and behave, even into adulthood.
But where do our emotions come from, and how do they shape the people we are and the way we perceive the world? Forty years ago, psychologist Paul Ekman demonstrated that facial expressions used to exhibit certain emotions are recognized by people everywhere. Ekman suggested that these emotions and their corresponding facial expressions evolved to help us deal quickly with situations that can affect our welfare. Though humans may share certain emotions and recognize them in others, we don’t all have the same emotional response to every situation. In fact, most emotional responses are learned and stored in our memories. The smell of freshly cut grass, for example, will generate happy feelings in someone who spent enjoyable childhood summers in the countryside, but not in someone who was forced to work long hours on a farm. Once an emotional association like this is made, it is very difficult to reverse it. But we can learn to control our emotions by becoming consciously aware of their underlying causes and by not reacting automatically to things in our environment.
But is it really possible to control our emotions? Researcher Richard Davidson has demonstrated that people who experience negative emotions display activity in the right prefrontal cortex. In those with a more positive perspective, the activity occurs in the left prefrontal cortex. He conducted a study on whether or not people can shift their negative feelings toward a calmer state of mind. In his research, one group of volunteers received eight weeks of training using meditation and relaxation techniques and at the end of the study, they showed a clear shift in brain activity toward the left happier frontal cortex.
For centuries, people have studied the brain, but it is only in recent years that we have really started to learn how it works. Nevertheless, there is still a long way to go before we understand our mind’s many complexities.
Question 1
What is the passage mainly about?
- how memory works
- how the mind works
- mind reading
- how our emotions are processed
Question 2
The phrase ‘piece of flesh’ in paragraph 1 refers to
- heart
- mind
- brain
- body
Question 3
Which of these statements is NOT true?
- Self-awareness develops around the age of two.
- The prefrontal cortex affects a person’s emotions.
- The prefrontal cortex is located at the back of the brain.
- Memories depend on the connections between brain cells.
Question 4
What can be the heading for paragraph 3?
- Who am I?
- Why do I have emotions?
- How do I remember?
- Can I control how I feel?
Question 5
Why don’t most people remember what happened before three years of age?
- The prefrontal cortex is not developed at this stage.
- Early memories disappear soon after they are formed.
- The part of the brain that forms memory is not fully developed at this stage.
- After the age of three, children tend to forget emotional memories.
Question 6
What is true about unconscious memories?
- They don’t exist in people’s mind.
- They cannot affect people’s emotions.
- They are inaccessible to the conscious mind.
- They are stored in the hippocampus.
Question 7
The word ‘corresponding’ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
- sending
- changing
- powerful
- related
Question 8
Why did the author mention ‘the smell of freshly cut grass’ in paragraph 4?
- to say that people share the same emotions in every situation.
- to give an example of different emotions people have in the same situation.
- to demonstrate that most people love spending their summers in the countryside
- to show that it relates to the negative feelings of people working on a farm.
Question 9
Where is the activity center for negative emotions?
- in the amygdala
- in the hippocampus
- in the left prefrontal cortex
- in the right prefrontal cortex
Question 10
According to researcher Richard Davidson, what helps people shift away from a negative state of mind?
- meditation and relaxation
- memory-retention techniques
- changing facial expressions
- being conscious of underlying emotions
PASSAGE 4
In recent years, the oceans have been seen as a potential source of renewable energy. Some estimates say that during the second decade of this century, ocean energy sources will generate more than 1,000 megawatts of electricity, which is enough to power a million homes in the industrialized world. Several technologies have been developed for exploiting these resources in a practical way, among which ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC) is one of the most promising. Experimental OTEC plants have been constructed using different operating principles, although as yet no large-scale commercially viable plant has been launched.
The basic operation behind this system uses the heat energy stored in the oceans as a source of power. The plant exploits the difference in water temperature between the warm surface waters heated by the sun and the colder waters found at ocean depths. A minimum temperature difference of 20 degrees Celsius between surface and depth is required for efficient operation, and this situation is typically found only in tropical and subtropical regions of the world. There are two basic kinds of OTEC system: the open cycle system and the closed cycle system. In the open cycle system, the warm surface water is converted into steam in a partial vacuum and this steam drives a turbine connected to an electrical generator. In a closed cycle system, the warm surface water is used to boil a fluid, such as ammonia, which has a low boiling point. In both systems cold water pumped up from the ocean depths condenses the vapor. In the open system, the steam is condensed back into a liquid by cold water pumped from deep-ocean water and then discharged. In the closed system, the condensed ammonia is used to repeat the cycle continuously.
The OTEC system is potentially an important source of clean, renewable energy, which could significantly reduce our reliance on fossil fuels and nuclear fission. [A] Unlike other forms of renewable energy, such as those provided directly by the sun and wind, OTEC plants can generate power all the time. Furthermore, the design of this technology avoids any significant release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. [B] Aquaculture is one important spinoff. [C] It may also be economically feasible to extract minerals from the pumped seawater. [D] Freshwater for drinking and irrigation is another by-product, and this will be an important advantage in regions where freshwater is limited.
Some drawbacks to this form of power generation have been noted. Perhaps the biggest drawback at present is the high capital cost of initial construction due mainly to the expense of the large pipeline used to pump water from 1,000 meters below the surface. Furthermore, the conversion of thermal to electrical energy in the OTEC system works at very low efficiency as the output power needed to pump a lot of water for production. There are also potential ecological drawbacks, since the water discharges will change the water temperature and disturb some marine habitats.
The main obstacle created by high initial expenses will have to be met before OTEC competes with conventional alternatives, and until such time, OTEC will remain restricted to experimental plants. When technology permits lower start-up costs, this technology will make an important contribution to world energy requirements.
Question 11
The word ‘viable’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
- clever
- feasible
- optimistic
- convenient
Question 12
It can be inferred from the passage that
- renewable energy can be put into reservoirs
- the experimental plants are ready to be launched
- the oceans could be used in the future to generate electricity
- 1,000 megawatts of electricity is the amount needed in the average home
Question 13
How are the two basic kinds of OTEC systems similar?
- They turn surface water into steam.
- They use cold water to cause condensation.
- They discharge unused water into the ocean.
- They convert water in a vacuum.
Question 14
The phrase ‘other forms’ in paragraph 3 refers to energy produced through
- fossil fuels and nuclear fission
- chemical reactions
- OTEC systems
- the sun and wind
Question 15
What can be inferred about the different sources of energy?
- We rely too much on fossil fuels and nuclear fission.
- Renewable energy releases a lot of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
- Energy from OTEC is provided directly by the sun and wind.
- Energy forms other than OTEC do not have important benefits.
Question 16
Why does the author mention aquaculture and mineral extractions in paragraph 3?
- To give examples of possible developments related to OTEC
- To demonstrate what other activities can be done in the ocean
- To point out OTEC’s advantages in regions of limited resources
- To show how the environment can be improved by using clean, renewable energy
Question 17
In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit? *The nutrient-rich cold water is an excellent medium for growing phytoplankton, which provide support for various commercially exploitable fish and shellfish.*
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
Question 18
What is NOT a problem with the OTEC system as a power-generating system?
- the costs of constructing the power system
- the damage caused to fishing grounds
- the effect of discharged water on the environment
- the amount of water needed to produce a useful amount of electricity
Question 19
The word ‘conventional’ in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
- conservative
- traditional
- tentative
- natural
Question 20
Which of the following best describes the author’s opinion about OTEC technology?
- OTEC will eventually supply most of the world’s energy needs.
- The disadvantages of OTEC energy outweigh its advantages.
- OTEC technology has a useful role to play in total energy production.
- Only very large OTEC plants can be made efficient.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng nhiều hơn: Bạn cần rèn luyện thêm kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích thông tin. Hãy bắt đầu với các đoạn văn ngắn hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc và nắm bắt các ý chính. Hãy tiếp tục luyện tập để cải thiện tốc độ và độ chính xác.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Rất tốt: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Bạn đã sẵn sàng cho những thử thách khó hơn.
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10
A diver descends into an underwater cave, a scientist researches a dangerous disease, and an entrepreneur invests in a new business.
Each time we try something new, we take a risk. Sometimes, like the diver or the businessman, we take big risks, usually for obvious reasons – for fame, for money, or to save lives. Most people will take some risk to achieve one of these goals. But as the danger increases, the number of people willing to go forward decreases. Only extreme risk-takers continue on. The question is: What exactly drives these people to go on when others would stop? [A]
The Biology of Risk
To answer this question, scientists are studying the biological factors involved in risk-taking. Their research focuses on certain chemicals in the brain. An important chemical in risk-taking is dopamine. It motivates us to seek out and learn new things, and it helps us process emotions like anxiety and fear. People whose brains don’t produce enough dopamine often lack motivation and interest in life. On the other hand, “someone who takes risks to accomplish something – to climb a mountain or start a company – that’s driven by motivation, and motivation is driven by dopamine,” says Larry Zweifel, a neurobiologist at the University of Washington. “It’s what compels humans to move forward.”
When we accomplish a task, dopamine produces a feeling of satisfaction; it makes us feel good. The riskier the task, the more dopamine we produce, and the better we feel. Given this, why isn’t everyone trying to climb mountains or start businesses? In part, it’s because of small molecules called autoreceptors. These receptors control dopamine use in the brain. A person with more autoreceptors tends to be more careful, as there is less dopamine moving freely around his or her brain. “Think of dopamine like gasoline,” says neuropsychologist David Zald. The autoreceptors, on the other hand, are like the brakes on a car. A person who is less able to use brakes is more likely to take risks. [B]
Dealing with Fear
Dopamine production may make us feel good, but being in a high-risk situation for an extended period of time is also stressful and can be dangerous. Successful risk-takers must learn to deal with the fear associated with high-risk situations to reduce stress and stay safe.
In reality, adapting to risk is something we all learn to do. Take, for example, learning to drive a car. At first, a new driver may be afraid to travel on freeways. In time, as the driver gains experience, he or she will move comfortably into speeding traffic and will worry less about the danger. Similarly, a tightrope walker first learns to walk on a beam on the ground. Later, he or she moves to a rope just off the ground, and then finally to the high wire. By this point, the tightrope walker is in control and the activity doesn’t feel dangerous. By practicing a challenging activity, humans can become used to the risk, manage the danger, and control the fear that they feel in those situations. [C]
The work that marine biologist and deep-sea diver Rhian Waller does illustrates this well. She studies life in some of the deepest and coldest waters on Earth. How does Waller control her fear and stay safe in these high-risk situations? “It comes with practice,” she says. “It’s knowing exactly what to do when something goes wrong. We prepare well for each of our expeditions, and we try to minimize the number of risks we take.”
Of course, a person doesn’t have to be a tightrope walker or a deep-sea diver to be a risk-taker. Taking risks is part of being human. We are all motivated to experience new things. In order to do so, we have to take chances and of course, we may fail. [D]
1. According to the article, what is a common reason for people to take large risks?
- a desire for fame
- a lack of dopamine
- to control motivation
- to learn new things
2. What is one of the main functions of dopamine?
- It allows us to talk.
- It allows us to be alert.
- It helps us process emotions.
- It makes us fear dangerous situations.
3. The word ‘compels’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
- takes
- forces
- makes
- discourages
4. What do autoreceptors do?
- They make us less careful.
- They make us feel better.
- They control dopamine in our brain.
- They connect molecules in our brain.
5. How do people with high dopamine for a long time feel?
- motivated
- satisfied
- stressed
- safe
6. The word ‘just’ in paragraph 6 could be replaced with
- slightly
- only
- recently
- finally
7. What is the purpose of paragraph 6?
- to show why driving and tightrope walking are such risky activities
- to give examples of how practicing a risky activity can reduce fear of it
- to illustrate how some people are attracted to risky activities while others aren’t
- to explain why some activities are riskier and more dangerous than others
8. What can we infer about marine biologist Rhian Waller?
- She has learned to adapt to risk.
- She has been afraid of the ocean for most of her life.
- She prefers to do her job when there is danger involved.
- She thinks it is impossible to prepare for most risks.
9. In which space (marked [A], [B], [C] and [D] in the passage) will the following sentence fit? "But with enough practice, we might also succeed."
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
10. Which of the following would be the best title for this article?
- The nature of risk
- The biology of risk
- Problems of risks taking and solutions
- Connection between risks and dopamine
PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20
Astronomers rate the darkness of our skies on a scale of 9 (brightest) to 1 (darkest). Most of us spend our lives in the radiance of levels 5 to 8, only rarely venturing into areas ranked 3 or darker. Because of the rapid growth of light pollution over recent decades, most Americans under 40 have never known real darkness. All over the globe, our nights are growing brighter, and almost nowhere are they growing darker. We are just beginning to learn the true cost of all this light. Studies increasingly link our overuse of light at night with health concerns such as sleep disorders and disease. Other studies report the damaging ecological consequences, the tremendous waste of energy, and even the decrease in safety and security. But the steady loss of darkness from our lives is not easily measured, for like the similarly endangered qualities of solitude and quiet, the true value of darkness is something we are barely aware of.
Take a brilliantly starry sky. Since the beginning of time, a sky plush with stars was part of the common human experience. [A] Everywhere on Earth, on most nights, our predecessors came face to face with the universe. [B] Today, because of light pollution, many of us live under a night sky showing 25 stars or fewer, it is nearly impossible to imagine a natural sky of some 2,500 individual stars backed by great swathes of uncountable billions. [C] Our night sky continues to shape us, but now it is the absence of the universe around us that influences our beliefs, our myths, our impulse to create. We are being shaped by a diminished experience of darkness, and most of us don’t even know what we are missing. [D]
Our Milky Way galaxy is home to several hundred billion stars, and the universe home to several hundred billion other galaxies. A sky wiped clear of stars encourages us to exaggerate our importance, to imagine humanity as the centre of all things. Face to face with the endless immensity of the universe, we have the chance to know how insignificant we really are. But we might also realise the true largeness of our living on this planet, and realise that we have an enormous responsibility to care, that there is no other place to go, that home is here.
And what of beauty? ‘Everyone needs beauty as well as bread,’ wrote John Muir, American naturalist and author, and varied degrees of darkness are rich with this. Lighting designers in Paris understand that without darkness, there is no ‘city of light’, and work constantly to create their city’s atmospheric beauty by subtly mixing artificial light with darkness. And with night’s moonlit geographies, its scents of desert rain and autumn fires, its pulsing insect symphonies punctuated by a bird’s solo call on a northern lake, natural darkness has many offerings of its own.
Yet we live immersed in artificial light. Much of this lighting is wholly unnecessary, born of habit and lack of awareness. So let us become aware: simply by shielding our existing lights we could significantly reduce their negative effects on our body, our mind, our soul. Artificial light at night is a miracle, a wonder, a quality that enriches our lives. But the same has always been true of darkness, and can be again.
11. What levels of darkness are people often exposed to?
- levels 1 to 3
- levels 3 to 5
- levels 5 to 8
- levels 1 to 9
12. What does the writer say about lack of darkness in paragraph 1?
- It is impossible to reverse its effects.
- It is something that many people are unhappy about.
- Its effects are something that need to be studied further.
- It can be compared with other things that people often fail to appreciate.
13. What is NOT a negative effect of overusing light at night?
- eye problems
- energy waste
- safety problems
- sleeping problems
14. What is the effect of light pollution on us?
- we are considerably less creative than our ancient ancestors.
- we experience the world in a different way to previous generations.
- we are aware that we are missing out on a great natural phenomenon.
- we need a great deal of imagination in order to understand the universe.
15. In which space (marked [A], [B], [C] and [D] in the passage) will the following sentence fit? "This experience influenced their beliefs, mythologies, art – their very understanding of their place in the world."
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
16. What does the writer think about humans in paragraph 3?
- We ignore the need to look after our planet.
- We have an over-confident belief in our own value.
- We behave as though nothing exists apart from ourselves.
- We prefer to avoid thinking too deeply about our role on Earth.
17. What does the word ‘this’ in paragraph 4 refer to?
- beauty
- darkness
- variety
- lighting
18. Why does the writer mention rain, fires and wildlife in paragraph 4?
- to describe what he enjoys least about night-time
- to explain why some people think that lighting is necessary at night
- to provide an example of the attractive qualities of night-time
- to highlight the differences between urban and natural environments
19. In the final paragraph, we understand that the author is
- irritated by people’s lack of interest in darkness.
- understanding of the reasons why artificial light is essential.
- keen to draw comparisons between artificial light and darkness.
- hopeful that people are becoming aware of the negative impact of light.
20. What is the purpose of the passage?
- to describe the importance of darkness
- to describe levels of darkness
- to describe light pollution
- to describe the importance of human in the universe
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng nhiều hơn: Bạn cần rèn luyện thêm kỹ năng đọc hiểu để nắm bắt ý chính và tìm kiếm thông tin chi tiết trong đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc hiểu tương đối tốt. Hãy tiếp tục luyện tập để cải thiện tốc độ và độ chính xác khi trả lời các câu hỏi suy luận.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất vững vàng. Bạn đã sẵn sàng để chinh phục các bài đọc khó hơn.
PASSAGE 3
Very few scientists acknowledged that animals were capable of thought. Most believed that animals reacted to things in their environment but lacked the ability to think or feel. How, then, could a scientist demonstrate that animals might, in fact, possess intelligence? Irene Pepperberg, a recent graduate of Harvard University began her research in 1977. She bought an African grey parrot she named Alex and taught him to reproduce the sounds of the English language. “I thought if he learned to communicate, I could ask him questions about how he sees the world.” she explains.
Certain skills are considered key signs of higher mental abilities: a good memory, an understanding of symbols, self-awareness, understanding of others’ motives, and creativity. Little by little, researchers have documented these abilities in other species. Sheep and elephants can recognize faces. Chimpanzees – who are genetically similar to humans – use a variety of primitive tools for eating, drinking, and hunting; they also laugh when pleased and spit to show disgust with something. Octopuses in captivity are known to amuse themselves by shooting water at laboratory staff. They may even exhibit basic emotions by changing color.
Alex the parrot was a surprisingly good talker. He learned how to use his voice to imitate almost 100 English words, including those for foods, colors, shapes, and numbers. Although imitation was once considered a simple skill, in recent years, cognitive scientists have revealed that it’s an extremely difficult ability. It requires the imitator to form a mental image of the other person’s body and actions and then adjust his own body parts into the same position. It is a behavior that shows an awareness of one’s self. Because Alex had mastered many English words, Pepperberg could ask him questions about a bird’s basic understanding of the world. Alex could count, as well as describe shapes, colors, and sizes for Pepperberg; he even had an elementary understanding of the abstract concept of zero.
Many of Alex’s cognitive skills, such as his ability to understand the concepts of same and different, are generally attributed only to higher mammals, particularly primates such as humans and apes. But parrots, like great apes (and humans), live a long time in complex societies. And like primates, these birds must monitor the changing relationships within the group. This may explain Alex’s ability to learn a human language. “When we take [parrots] into captivity, what they start to do is treat us as their flock,” explains Pepperberg. Parrots learn to pronounce and use our words so they can become a part of our group.
Researchers in Germany and Austria have also been studying language ability in dogs. One named Betsy has shown that she is able to learn and remember words as quickly as a two-year-old child. She has an extraordinary vocabulary of over 340 words (and counting), knows at least 15 people by name, and can link photographs with the real objects they represent. Like Alex, she’s pretty smart. This is the larger lesson of animal cognition research: It humbles us. We are not alone in our ability to invent, communicate, demonstrate emotions, or think about ourselves. Still, humans remain the creative species. No other animal has built cities, created music, or made a computer.
Question 1
What is the passage mainly about?
- ways of teaching animals to become more intelligent
- research that shows intelligence is not limited to humans
- how animals can communicate with humans
- how human and animal intelligence are different
Question 2
Which can NOT show higher mental abilities?
- understanding signs
- remembering words
- being aware of one’s self
- being able to drink water
Question 3
Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
- how an octopus displays basic emotions
- ways in which elephants communicate with each other
- how chimps evolved tool-making abilities
- the language ability of dogs
Question 4
The word ‘exhibit’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
- cover
- control
- experience
- display
Question 5
What could Alex do that showed self-awareness?
- count
- learn vocabulary
- copy human sounds
- understand the concept of zero
Question 6
In paragraph 3, ‘It’ refers to
- counting
- talking
- imitating
- asking questions
Question 7
What do parrots and primates have in common?
- They both live a long time in complex societies.
- They both learn to use tools while in captivity.
- They both teach new human words to their young.
- Neither likes to participate in or be part of a group.
Question 8
In paragraph 5, the word ‘link’ could be replaced with
- match
- take
- count
- view
Question 9
How are animals different from humans?
- They can invent things.
- They can express emotions.
- They can show awareness.
- They can show creativity.
Question 10
Which statement would the author probably agree with?
- Only humans and primates are capable of thought.
- Birds share a common ancestry with humans.
- Some birds are more intelligent than humans.
- We can find intelligence in species we don’t normally consider intelligent.
PASSAGE 4
Pénicillium chrysogenum, or Pénicillium notatum is a common mold – a fungus that has multicellular arms or filaments called hyphae. It can be found living indoors on food. Its spores, units of asexual reproduction that can evolve into a new organism, and are a major cause of allergens in humans. In 1928, Scottish scientist Alexander Fleming discovered that Pénicillium notatum contained a bacteria-killing antibiotic that he named penicillin.
Alexander Fleming was born in 1881 in Scotland. At the age of twenty, he entered St. Mary’s Hospital in London and studied medicine, then went on to become the assistant bacteriologist to Sir Almroth Wright, a pioneer in immunology and vaccine therapy. During World War I, Fleming served as a captain in the Royal Army Medical Corps and worked on the frontlines where he witnessed firsthand soldiers dying of sepsis. Sepsis, or systematic inflammatory response (SIRS), is blood poisoning due to the presence of bacteria in the blood. Fleming witnessed widespread sepsis, most of which was caused by infected wounds. Antiseptics were widely available yet Fleming believed they killed only surface bacteria while failing to eradicate deeper bacteria. After the war, Fleming was determined to find a cure for sepsis. In 1928, while researching the properties of staphylococci, a genus of gram-positive bacteria, he stumbled upon Pénicillium notatum.
By 1928, Fleming was regarded as a brilliant researcher whose laboratory was, more often than not, a mess. That same year, returning to his lab after an August holiday, he discovered that his staphylococci cultures had been contaminated by a fungus. Fleming was intent on throwing the cultures out when he noticed that the staphylococci colonies had been surrounded by an invading blue-green mold. Much to Fleming’s surprise, the invading mold had eradicated the staphylococci it had surrounded; whereas, those colonies of staphylococci that had not been touched by the mold were still thriving. He set about isolating and growing the mold which produced a substance that killed not only staphylococci, but also a number of other disease-causing bacteria, such as pneumonia, scarlet fever, meningitis and diphtheria. He called the bacteria-killing substance “mold juice.” Once he’d established that the mold was in fact part of the genus pénicillium, he called it penicillin.
In 1929, Fleming published the results of his experiments in the British Journal of Experimental Pathology. Yet despite such initial promise, his work garnered little attention, for growing pénicillium was difficult while extracting the antibiotic agent, the bacteria-killing penicillin itself, was even harder. These results, combined with tests proving that penicillin worked slowly, convinced Fleming that penicillin had no commercial appeal. By 1939, Fleming, having labored long and hard over penicillin, finally turned his attention to other matters. Then, in that same year, the Australian scientist Howard Walter Florey, director of the Sir William Dunn School of Pathology at Oxford University, read Fleming’s paper in which he described the anti-bacterial effects of pénicillium. Florey immediately saw the potential of pénicillium and, with the help of Ernst Chain, did more research on the effects of penicillin and produced it on a large scale successfully in the US. By 1943, frontline soldiers with infections were being treated with a new wonder drug called penicillin.
Question 11
What is the passage mainly about?
- the history of penicillin
- the use of penicillin
- the production of penicillin
- side effects of penicillin
Question 12
According to paragraph 1, what are able to reproduce asexually?
- filaments
- hypha
- spores
- penicillin
Question 13
Where did Fleming see evidence of widespread SIRS?
- in the Royal Medical Corps
- in St. Mary’s Hospital
- in Ayrshire, Scotland
- in frontline soldiers
Question 14
What did Fleming think about antiseptics?
- They were ineffective.
- They killed deeper bacteria.
- They were difficult to be found.
- They were too expensive.
Question 15
The word ‘eradicate’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
- reduce
- surround
- protect
- destroy
Question 16
What did Alexander Fleming find by chance in 1928?
- Pénicillium notatum
- gram-positive bacteria
- lysozyme
- sepsis
Question 17
According to paragraph 3, what did the blue-green mold do?
- It contaminated a fungus.
- It destroyed the staphylococci.
- It built colonies of staphylococci.
- It turned into staphylococci cultures.
Question 18
The word ‘it’ in paragraph 3 refers to
- the invading mold
- staphylococci
- bacteria
- a substance
Question 19
What is NOT a disease that a penicillin can cure?
- flu
- pneumonia
- scarlet fever
- meningitis
Question 20
According to paragraph 4, by 1939 what had Fleming concluded?
- that penicillin was a wonder drug all would benefit from
- that he had wasted his life researching penicillin
- that Sir William Dunn should read his 1929 research paper
- that penicillin was not economically successful.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần luyện tập thêm: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được củng cố. Hãy chú ý đến việc tìm ý chính và các chi tiết hỗ trợ trong đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc và nắm bắt thông tin tốt. Hãy tiếp tục luyện tập để tăng tốc độ và độ chính xác.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Rất tốt: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Bạn có thể tự tin với các bài đọc phức tạp hơn.
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1
Questions 1-10
Humanitarian Dorothea Dix was born in the tiny village of Hampden, Maine, in 1802. An avid reader and fast learner, she was taken in by her grandmother, who lived in Boston, and was educated there. When only nineteen years old, she established the Dix Mansion School for girls in Boston. There was no lack of students, and the school provided a good source of income for her and her two brothers, whom she had brought to Boston to live with her. She also wrote and published the first of many books for children in 1824. In 1836, however, her health failed. She suffered most of her life from “lung trouble” (probably tuberculosis) and depression. She was forced to stop teaching and had to close her school.
Later that same year, having partially recovered, Dix set off for Italy to rest and recover her health in the warm Italian sunshine. She never made it to Italy, however. By the time her ship arrived in England, she was too ill to continue. She was taken care of by a kind British friend, William Rathbone. During her time in England, she became friends with Samuel Tuke, who directed the York Retreat for the Mentally Disordered. From Tuke, she learned new, more humane methods for taking care of the mentally ill.
Returning to the United States, Dix volunteered to teach classes at a prison for women in Cambridge, Massachusetts. Over the objections of the jailer, she went to the lower level of the jail where the mentally ill were housed. She was shocked to see that they were treated far worse even than ordinary criminals and were forced to live in filthy, miserable, brutal conditions. She vowed to spend the rest of her life improving conditions for the mentally ill.
For the next eighteen months, Dix toured Massachusetts prisons, poor-houses, and local jails where other mental patients were confined. She reported on the terrible conditions that she found to the Massachusetts legislature, which soon passed laws to improve conditions. After that, she turned her attention to neighboring New England states and then to the West and South. She traveled thousands of miles by train, coach, carriage, and riverboat, systematically gathering facts in order to convince those in power.
When the Civil War broke out in 1861, Dix was nearly sixty years old. However, she volunteered to form the Army Nursing Corps. At first, military authorities, who were not accustomed to female nurses, were skeptical, but she convinced them that women could perform this work acceptably. She recruited over 3,000 women and raised money for medical supplies for the troops. Under her leadership, army nursing care greatly improved.
After the war, Dix returned to her life’s work and resumed her travels. She saw special hospitals for the mental ill built in fifteen states. She asked the federal government to use the income from public lands to help poor mental patients, and although both houses of Congress approved this bill, President Pierce vetoed it. Even though this plan failed, Dix was able to arouse concern for the problem of mental illness all over the United States as well as in Canada and Europe. Dix’s success was due to her independent and thorough research, her gentle but persistent manner, and her ability to convince powerful and wealthy patrons to help her.
1. Why was the Dix Mansion school closed?
- because Dix was in poor health
- because Dix could not attract enough students
- because Dix decided to travel to Europe
- because Dix had to take care of her brothers
2. Who taught Dix new ideas about caring for the mentally ill?
- Her grandmother
- William Rathbone
- Samuel Tuke
- A jailer at a prison in Cambridge
3. Why did Dorothea Dix first go to the women’s prison in Cambridge, Massachusetts?
- She was sent there by the Massachusetts legislature.
- She wanted to do research on prison conditions.
- She was hired to be the jailer.
- She was teaching a class there.
4. Where was Dorothea Dix first able to bring about reforms in the treatment of the mentally ill?
- England
- Massachusetts
- The southern part of the U.S.
- Maine
5. The word ‘they’ in paragraph 3 refers to
- jailers
- ordinary criminals
- mentally ill prisoners
- classes
6. What does the author say about the military authorities in paragraph 5?
- They were not used to women nurses.
- They asked Dix to become superintendent.
- They improved army nursing care during the war.
- They did not allow Dix to recruit nurses herself.
7. The word ‘them’ in paragraph 5 refers to
- military authorities
- nurses
- women
- the troops
8. Dix was NOT successful in her attempt to
- publish books for children
- arouse concern for the mentally ill
- obtain income from public lands
- become superintendent of nurses
9. Which of the following is NOT given as one of the reasons for Dix’s success?
- Her research was independent and methodical.
- She attracted rich, influential sponsors to her cause.
- Although she had a gentle manner, she didn’t give up.
- Her personal wealth allowed her to finance projects herself.
10. The word ‘vetoed’ in paragraph 6 is best replaced with
- accepted
- refused
- voted for
- agreed
PASSAGE 2
Questions 11-20
For centuries, the power of Chinese emperors rose and fell with their control of the Grand Canal. Today, this important waterway is shorter than it once was, but it is still the longest man-made river in the world, and continues to play an important cultural and economic role in modern China. [A]
Construction Begins
The original canal system began around the year 605, when Emperor Yang realized that – in order to feed his army – he needed a way to move food quickly from China’s southern rice-growing region to the country’s north. An estimated one million people, mostly farmers, worked to build the first section of the Grand Canal, which connected existing canals, lakes, and rivers. Construction took six years and was completed in 611.
Over the next 500 years, the canal’s importance grew throughout China, but by 1127, parts were deteriorating. In 1279, Kublai Khan began to repair and build new parts of the canal. This renovation created a more direct north-south route to and from Beijing. Future rulers then continued to expand and improve the canal.
Nation’s Lifeline
In addition to moving rice around China, the Grand Canal was also an important cultural conduit. Soldiers, merchants, and artists transported ideas, regional foods, and cultural practices from one part of China to another along the country’s watery highway. According to legend, this is how Beijing acquired two of its best-known trademarks: Peking duck, a dish from Shandong Province in the south, and Peking opera, from Anhui and Hubei, also in the south. [B]
The Modern Canal
For more than a thousand years, goods have been transported along the Grand Canal. Even today, the country’s watery highway plays an important economic role in China. Boats continue to carry tons of coal, food, and other goods to points between Hangzhou and Jining. In addition, local governments – eager to increase tourism and real estate development – are working to beautify areas along the canal. [C]
This development comes at a price, though. In Yangzhou, the city has torn down almost all of the older canal-side buildings. Farther south in the cities of Zhenjiang, Wuxi, and Hangzhou, the situation is similar. In Hangzhou, for example, almost all of the ancient buildings have been demolished. “Traditionally we talk about 18 main cities on the Grand Canal, and each had something unique and special about it.” Explains Zhou Xinhua, the former vice director of the Grand Canal museum in Hangzhou. “But now many of these cities are all the same: a thousand people with one face.”
In 2005, a group of citizens proposed that the historic Grand Canal be made a UNESCO World Heritage site, to protect both the waterway and the architecture around it. “Every generation wants the next generation to understand it, to look at its monuments.” said Zhu Bingren, an artist who cowrote this proposal. The hope is that the Grand Canal, a site of cultural and economic importance – and one of the world’s great engineering accomplishments – will continue to link north and south China for centuries to come. [D]
11. Why was the Grand Canal originally built?
- to allow the army to move quickly from the north to the south
- to transport food from the southern regions of China to the northern regions
- to enable more people to visit remote parts of China
- to promote the cultural and traditional diversity of the south of China
12. What is NOT true about the Grand Canal?
- It originally took six years to complete its construction.
- Even today, it is the longest man-made river in the world.
- Around a million people worked on the first section of the canal.
- It allowed Peking duck and Peking opera to spread to southern China.
13. What is the main idea of paragraphs 2 and 3?
- the origin of the Grand Canal
- the history of the Grand Canal
- the modernization of the Grand Canal
- the cultural importance of the Grand Canal
14. What would be the best alternative heading for paragraph 4?
- Renewed Importance
- Cultural Connections
- The Army’s Highway
- The Origins of Peking Opera
15. The word ‘practices’ in paragraph 4 could be replaced with
- traditions
- repetitions
- instructions
- improvements
16. Why did the writer mention Peking duck in paragraph 4?
- to give an example of a famous food in Beijing.
- to show that it is a favourite dish of people from Shandon Province.
- to demonstrate a trademark in Beijing.
- to give an example of the cultural importance of the Grand Canal.
17. What best paraphrases the following sentence in paragraph 6? *This development comes at a price, though.*
- But developing the canal involves spending a lot of money.
- But even after spending money, people might not like the development.
- But developing it is a lot more expensive than one can imagine.
- But there are some negative consequences to having this development.
18. The word ‘demolished’ in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to
- destroyed
- built
- renovated
- restored
19. The artist Zhu Bingren would probably most like to see that
- the canal and the area around it are declared a heritage site
- the canal is further expanded in an east-west direction
- more changes are made to modernize the canal
- a monument is created to honor China’s economic and cultural importance
20. In which space (marked [A], [B], [C] and [D] in the passage) will the following sentence fit? *The city of Yangzhou, for example, has created a beautiful park near its waterfront.*
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng nhiều hơn. Hãy đọc lại các đoạn văn cẩn thận hơn và chú ý đến các chi tiết trong câu hỏi để cải thiện điểm số.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt! Bạn đã nắm được ý chính của các đoạn văn. Để làm tốt hơn, hãy luyện tập tìm kiếm thông tin cụ thể và suy luận từ nội dung.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Rất xuất sắc! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất vững chắc. Hãy tiếp tục phát huy nhé!
PASSAGE 3
The word noise is derived from the Latin word nausea, meaning “seasickness.” Noise is among the most pervasive pollutants today. Noise pollution can be broadly defined as unwanted or offensive sounds that unreasonably intrude into our daily activities. Noises from traffic, jet engines, barking dogs, garbage trucks, construction equipment, factories, lawn mowers, leaf blowers, televisions, boom boxes, and car radios, to name a few, are among the audible litter that is routinely broadcast into the air.
One measure of pollution is the danger it poses to health. Noise negatively affects human health and well-being. Problems related to noise include hearing loss, stress, high blood pressure, sleeplessness, fright, distraction, and lost productivity. Noise pollution also contributes to a general reduction in the quality of life and eliminates opportunities for tranquility.
A number of factors contribute to problems of growing noise levels. One is increasing population, particularly when it leads to increasing urbanization and urban consolidation, because activities associated with urban living generally lead to increased noise levels. Another is the increasing volume of road, rail, and air traffic. Some people would add to this list a diminishing sense of civility and a growing disrespect for the rights of others.
We experience noise in a number of ways. On some occasions, we can be both the cause and the victim of noise, such as when we are operating noisy appliances or equipment. There are also instances when we experience noise generated by others, just as people experience secondhand smoke. In both instances, noise is equally damaging physically. Secondhand noise is generally more troubling, however, because it is put into the environment by others, without our consent.
The air into which secondhand noise is emitted and on which it travels is “a commons.” [A] It belongs not to an individual person or a group, but to everyone. [B] People, businesses, and organizations, therefore, do not have unlimited rights to broadcast noise as they please, as if the effects of noise were limited only to their private property. [C] Those that disregard the obligation to not interfere with others’ use and enjoyment of the commons by producing noise pollution are, in many ways, acting like a bully in a school yard. [D] Although they may do so unknowingly, they disregard the rights of others and claim for themselves rights that are not theirs.
Noise pollution differs from other forms of pollution in a number of ways. Noise is transient; once the pollution stops, the environment is free of it. This is not the case with air pollution, for example. We can measure the amount of chemicals and other pollutants introduced into the air. Scientists can estimate how much material can be introduced into the air before harm is done. The same is true of water pollution and soil pollution.
Though we can measure individual sounds that may actually damage human hearing, it is difficult to monitor cumulative exposure to noise or to determine just how much noise is too much. The definition of noise pollution itself is highly subjective. To some people, the roar of an engine is satisfying or thrilling; to others it is an annoyance. Loud music may be a pleasure or a torment, depending on the listener and the circumstances.
The actual loudness of a sound is only one component of the negative effect noise pollution has on human beings. Other factors that have to be considered are the time and place, the duration, the source of the sound, and even the mood of the affected person. Most people would not be bothered by the sound of a 21-gun salute on a special occasion. On the other hand, the thump-thump of music coming from the apartment downstairs at 2 A.M., even if barely audible, might be a major source of stress. The sound of a neighbor’s lawn mower may be unobjectionable on a summer afternoon, but if someone is hoping to sleep late on a Saturday morning, the sound of a lawn mower starting up just after sunrise is an irritant.
Question 1
The word ‘routinely’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
- regularly
- accidentally
- recently
- unfortunately
Question 2
The phrase ‘this list’ in paragraph 3 refers to a list of
- types of noise pollution
- factors that explain why noise pollution is getting worse
- activities that are associated with life in the city
- methods of transportation
Question 3
In paragraph 4, the author implies that secondhand noise pollution
- is not as damaging physically as noise that one generates oneself
- damages a person’s health as much as secondhand smoke
- makes people both the cause and the victim of noise pollution
- is usually more annoying because it is out of one’s control
Question 4
In paragraph 5, the author explains the concept of interfering with others’ use and enjoyment of a commons by
- comparing it to another common negative experience
- pointing out ways in which people, businesses, and organizations sometimes interfere with the rights of others
- explaining that sometimes this interference is intentional and sometimes unintentional
- giving examples of various forms of commons and of ways people interfere with them
Question 5
In which space (marked [A], [B], [C], and [D] in the passage) will the following sentence fit?
*On the contrary, they have an obligation to use the commons in ways that are compatible with or do not detract from other uses.*
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
Question 6
The word ‘transient’ in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to
- irritating
- persistent
- temporary
- immeasurable
Question 7
What best paraphrases the following sentence?
*Though we can measure individual sounds that may actually damage human hearing, it is difficult to monitor cumulative exposure to noise or to determine just how much noise is too much.*
- It’s hard to monitor cumulative exposure to sound because it is difficult to measure individual sounds.
- The louder the sound, the more difficult it is to measure.
- Individual sounds can be measured, but not the effects of long-term exposure to noise, and it’s hard to say what level of sound is safe.
- Individual sounds are not usually very damaging to human hearing, but multiple sounds that occur at the same time can be very harmful.
Question 8
The word ‘thrilling’ in paragraph 7 is closest in meaning to
- unusual
- exciting
- irritating
- unexpected
Question 9
Which of the following is NOT one of the components of the negative effects that noise pollution has on people?
- The volume of the sound
- The time when the sound is heard
- The source of the sound
- The combination of one sound and another
Question 10
In paragraph 8, the author mentions a 21-gun salute as an example of
- a particularly irritating form of noise pollution
- a type of noise pollution that can cause physical damage and fright
- a loud noise that most people tolerate on special occasions
- a noise that is much more annoying than soft music
PASSAGE 4
In the mid-1800s, scientists discovered the complete skeleton of a dinosaur called Archaeopteryx lithographica. The creature was thought to have lived approximately 150 million years ago and, curiously, had features that resembled not only dinosaurs, but modern birds as well. For instance, while it had sharp teeth and a bony tail like the dinosaurs of its time, it also had wings and feathers like modern birds. Despite these similarities to birds, the general consensus within the scientific community was that the closest living relatives of dinosaurs were reptiles, like lizards and alligators. It wasn’t until 1969, when paleontologists discovered the fossils of a dinosaur called Deinonychus antirrhopus, that the debate about whether or not birds evolved from dinosaurs was reopened.
The main problem with the theory linking dinosaurs to modern birds – which was also the main support for arguments that reptiles were, in fact, the closest living ancestors of dinosaurs – was the belief that dinosaurs did not have furculae, or wishbones. The main function of this fork-shaped bone, which is located at the base of the neck on birds, is to reinforce the skeleton against the many stresses of flight. However, fossil evidence found in recent years has revealed that many dinosaurs did indeed have furculae. For example, the dinosaurs in the Dromaeosauridae family, a group of bird-like dinosaurs, are all believed to have had furculae. This discovery contradicts the theory that the bones are unique to birds.
[A] In addition to the observation of furculae in dinosaur fossils, paleontologists have identified a number of other structural similarities between birds and dinosaurs. [B] For example, comparisons between the skeletons of birds and those of dinosaurs like Velociraptor mongoliensis and Deinonychus reveal that birds and dinosaurs share many unique skeletal features. [C] For instance, Velociraptor fossils show that the creature’s front limbs, the construction of which would have presumably allowed for great flexibility are similar to those of modern birds. [D] On the other hand, no such likenesses exist between dinosaurs and early reptiles.
Another compelling piece of evidence that paleontologists now generally agree that birds evolved from dinosaurs is the presence of feathers in both organisms. Fossils of Archaeopteryx feature imprints of feathers that closely resemble those found on modern birds. Since the discovery of Archaeopteryx, paleontologists have discovered fossils demonstrating that a number of other dinosaurs that were likely related to Archaeopteryx also had feathers. Furthermore, even the fossils of dinosaurs that were not related to Archaeopteryx, such as Tyrannosaurus rex, have been found to have long, feather-like structures that are commonly referred to as protofeathers which help to insulate dinosaurs from cold temperatures, not to assist with flight, which accounts for why many flightless dinosaurs may have had them.
Paleontologists have also found evidence that the lungs of dinosaurs were shaped similarly to birds’ lungs. Birds have extra air sacs in front of and behind their lungs that allow them to keep their lungs inflated constantly and some dinosaurs also had lungs with extra chambers. However, most animals, including primates, lizards, and frogs, have lungs with two compartments. The similarities in skeletal structures, the existence of feathers and extra lung chambers in both groups reveal that birds probably evolved from dinosaurs and are thus their closest living relatives.
Question 11
Why does the author mention wings and feathers?
- to point out features shared by Archaeopteryx and modern birds.
- to explain the small size of Archaeopteryx fossils.
- to argue that Archaeopteryx was most likely a bird and not a dinosaur.
- to describe what Archaeopteryx probably looked like.
Question 12
The word ‘consensus’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
- question
- debate
- evidence
- agreement
Question 13
What best paraphrases the following sentence in paragraph 2?
*The main problem with the theory linking dinosaurs to modern birds – which was also the main support for arguments that reptiles were, in fact, the closest living ancestors of dinosaurs – was the belief that dinosaurs did not have furculae, or wishbones.*
- The idea that dinosaurs did not have wishbones was the chief difficulty in proving that modern birds were related to dinosaurs.
- Many people believed that reptiles were the closest living ancestors of dinosaurs because, like dinosaurs, they do not have furculae.
- The main reason that scientists couldn’t link modern birds and dinosaurs was because they could not find furculae in most modern bird species.
- Dinosaurs’ presumed lack of wishbones made people think that birds, not reptiles, were their closest living ancestors.
Question 14
Why was the discovery of dinosaur fossils with furculae important?
- it indicated that several bird species had already evolved during the time of dinosaurs.
- it proved that many reptilian animals, including dinosaurs, had furculae.
- it made people uncertain about the theory that reptiles were the closest living relatives of dinosaurs.
- it helped scientists determine the purpose of furculae in non-bird species.
Question 15
What can be inferred about dinosaurs in the Dromaeosauridae family?
- They were closely related to Archaeopteryx.
- They were able to fly.
- They were the only dinosaurs that had furculae.
- They were small compared to other dinosaurs.
Question 16
The word ‘those’ in paragraph 3 refers to
- Velociraptor fossils.
- front limbs.
- likenesses.
- early reptiles.
Question 17
In which space (marked [A], [B], [C], and [D] in the passage) will the following sentence fit?
*Scientists have also observed structural similarities in the skulls and necks of some dinosaurs and birds.*
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
Question 18
The word ‘compelling’ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
- persuasive
- conflicting
- recent
- sufficient
Question 19
What is true about protofeathers?
- They were likely the type of feathers that Archaeopteryx had.
- Only bird-like dinosaurs had them.
- They probably helped dinosaurs stay warm.
- Some modern birds have been found to have them.
Question 20
What do primates and lizards have in common?
- They have a more elaborate lung structure than dinosaurs did.
- They are able to keep their lungs full of air constantly.
- Their lungs have a similar structure.
- They have other organs in addition to lungs to help them breathe.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng đọc hiểu cơ bản. Hãy luyện tập đọc các đoạn văn ngắn và nắm ý chính.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc và phân tích thông tin tốt. Để cải thiện, hãy chú ý hơn đến các câu hỏi suy luận và từ vựng trong ngữ cảnh.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Tuyệt vời! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục thử thách bản thân với các bài đọc khó hơn.
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10
Though we have sent unmanned spacecraft to Mars and other parts of our solar system for decades, humans haven’t ventured more than 650 kilometers (400 miles) from Earth since 1973. However, there is increasing interest in sending new missions – both robotic and manned – into space. But unlike in the past, this renewed interest is not primarily being driven by government agencies. Instead, private companies are leading today’s new age of space exploration.
Take, for example, SpaceX, a private company based near Los Angeles. In early 2012, it sent an unmanned rocket to the International Space Station (ISS). Until now, astronauts and supplies from the U.S have been transported by space shuttle to the ISS. SpaceX and other companies are competing to replace the U.S. government shuttle and become the ISS’s supply ship.
Another company called Planetary Resources – which is backed by billionaires from Google – plans to use robotic spacecraft to mine asteroids for precious metals. One that the company hopes to find is platinum, a metal so rare on Earth that an ounce (about 28 grams) costs $1,600. Robots will have to travel millions of kilometers to locate and mine asteroids, and this requires technology that doesn’t exist yet. This isn’t stopping companies like Planetary Resources and others from trying, though. They are investing millions into research, hoping to create tools that will make space mining possible. “This is the beginning of the new space age,” says Mason Peck, who works for NASA, the U.S. space organization. “The energy we see now – the economic motivation to go into space – we haven’t seen that before.”
For centuries, economics has driven exploration. A thousand years ago, merchants risked the dangers of the Silk Road to reach the markets of China. In the 15th century, European ships traveled to new worlds, searching less for knowledge than for gold and spices. “Historically, the driver has always been the search for resources.” explains investor Peter Diamandis. If you want people to explore space, he says, create an economic incentive.
Entrepreneur Elon Musk, the founder of SpaceX and other companies, is spending a large part of his fortune on his own space program. SpaceX, as mentioned earlier, is developing a new rocket that can transport supplies to the ISS. It will be capable of carrying twice the cargo of the U.S. government’s space shuttle, Musk says, for about one-fifth the price. He wants to reduce costs by creating reusable rockets – in the same way that we reuse a plane after a flight. “Creating reusable rockets will be extremely difficult, and most people think it’s impossible, but I do not.” Musk says. “If we threw away airplanes after every flight, no one would fly.”
For Musk, creating reusable rockets is part of a much bigger plan: He wants to establish a human colony on Mars. NASA has had enormous success on Mars with unmanned spacecraft, but it has yet to launch a manned mission. Musk says SpaceX could put astronauts on Mars within 20 years, and then keep sending them for decades after that. “We can’t send one little group to Mars,” he says. “We have to take millions of people and lots of equipment to Mars to make it a self-sustaining civilization.” It will be the hardest thing that humanity has ever done, but Musk thinks his company can do it and he’s eager to see it happen. “It’s about making life multi-planetary,” he says. “It’s about getting out there and exploring the stars.”
1. Which statement about space exploration is NOT true?
- In 2012, a private company sent an unmanned rocket to the ISS.
- Humans have recently traveled more than 650 kilometers from Earth.
- There is newfound interest in manned and unmanned missions to space.
- More and more private companies are beginning to explore space.
2. What is mentioned about Planetary Resources company?
- It is a government agency.
- It has sent manned missions into space.
- It has sent robotic missions into space to search for rare metals.
- It is supported by some people working for Google.
3. What does ‘one’ in paragraph 3 refer to?
- one asteroid
- one metal
- one spacecraft
- one reason
4. What could the word ‘energy’ in paragraph 3 be replaced with?
- fuel
- enthusiasm
- investments
- capacity
5. What is true about space mining?
- Spacecraft transport people to mine precious metals.
- Robots locate and mine asteroids millions of kilometers faraway.
- Space mining is not available at present.
- The government has invested a lot of money into space mining.
6. What is the main idea of paragraph 4?
- Making money has always encouraged exploration, and space exploration is not different.
- It will take many more resources to convince people to travel to space.
- The development of space travel has been slow due to economic reasons.
- The search for knowledge is what should drive space exploration rather than economics.
7. What does SpaceX want to do?
- build a space station that can replace the ISS
- get the government’s approval to transport astronauts to the ISS
- partner with Planetary Resources to mine asteroids for platinum
- develop a reusable rocket that can take supplies to the ISS
8. What is said about the new rocket of SpaceX?
- It can carry the same number of people as planes.
- It can carry the same number of supplies as the government’s shuttle.
- Its transportation cost is 20 percent of the government’s shuttle.
- It will be used for space mining.
9. What does ‘it’ in paragraph 6 refer to?
- putting a few astronauts on Mars
- sending several unmanned spacecraft to Mars
- making a self-sustaining civilization on Mars
- transporting supplies to the ISS
10. The word ‘civilization’ in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to
- society
- group
- government
- life
PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20
Why do we spend so much of our time not doing the work we should be doing, or putting off minor tasks that have since piled up to create one enormous, insurmountable obstacle? Procrastinating, as putting things off like this is called, is in our genetic make-up; we avoid dull or difficult jobs, opting to browse the internet instead, until it’s too late to do anything else.
‘We often put things off despite knowing that it will make life harder and more stressful,’ says Dr Piers Steel, the author of a book on procrastination and an authority on the science of motivation. ‘If these tasks were fun, we’d just do them now, but we put off what is difficult or unpleasant.’ Such as the paperwork that needs doing before leaving the office or cleaning the bits of your home that people can’t see.
However, getting on and doing things bring people many benefits. The fact is, the less people procrastinate, the better relationships they have, and the healthier they are. This is obvious when you look at the couples who don’t argue about whether anyone has cleaned the kitchen yet, then they can have more time to do physical exercise together, thus helping them keep fit and becoming closer. Some others, on the other hand, have endlessly rescheduling in their own heads and feel the chores piling up around them daily.
‘We’ve evolved to respond to the moment, and not to set our sights too far in an uncertain world,’ Dr Steel adds. ‘We are not set up to appreciate long-term rewards, whether it’s the benefit of a four-year degree, doing exercise or dieting. You feel the cost now and the reward comes much later. But humans value the short term.’ Procrastination is often associated with unhappiness, so now is the time to unlearn your time-wasting techniques and work-avoidance tactics. ‘You have two decision-making systems in your brain,’ Dr Steel says, ‘the limbic - which is responsible for the short term, and the prefrontal cortex, which deals with the future - it’s responsible for civilisation. We bounce between long-term goals and short-term temptations, so we need goals that will translate our plans for the limbic system.’
For example, take students writing dissertations; they set themselves targets and word counts per day. These are thus turned from seemingly endless tasks into something concrete with easily measured progress. Dr Steel recommends such techniques, or ‘pre-commitments’, adding that engaging yourself and others a month or so before the ‘deadline’ makes it more likely a task will be completed.
Overcoming procrastination ultimately comes down to planning, which, if you’re not careful, becomes procrastination in itself. But it’s worth making sure you have everything in place to change your strategies for the better - a separate computer log-on screen for work and for play, the former with a plain background, fewer applications and limited internet access. If you wish to check your personal emails, make sure they’re a log-out, rather than a click, away and remember every time you disengage, that it takes 15 minutes fully to re-immerse yourself in the task at hand.
11. What is true about procrastinating?
- It is something people use as an excuse.
- It is something many people can’t help.
- It is caused by the technology in people’s lives.
- It is more common when people have small jobs to do.
12. Why does the author mention the paperwork in paragraph 2?
- to give an example of something people often put off
- to show a task people feel pleasant to do.
- to compare it with housework
- to talk about a subject of the book by Dr Piers Steel.
13. What best paraphrases the following sentence in paragraph 3? "The fact is, the less people procrastinate, the better relationships they have, and the healthier they are."
- People can improve their relationships and health when they do not procrastinate.
- The more people procrastinate; the more relationships they can have.
- Relationships can be badly affected when people put things off.
- The less people procrastinate, the more relationships they have and the stronger they become.
14. According to paragraph 4, what should people who procrastinate do?
- find out more about the way they make decisions.
- be aware that their problem is relatively small.
- attempt to overcome their natural tendencies.
- take the advice of others in the same situation.
15. The word ‘temptations’ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
- targets
- goals
- wishes
- values
16. What does the word ‘these’ in paragraph 5 refers to?
- students
- dissertations
- targets
- word counts
17. Why does Dr Steel recommend making ‘pre-commitments’?
- They are an alternative to impossible goals.
- They are an effective way of impressing others.
- They allow people to achieve their aims sooner.
- They make challenges feel more manageable.
18. What does the author do in paragraph 6?
- reminds the reader to take the time to focus properly on a task
- warns the reader against spending too long planning.
- advises the reader to deal with non-work tasks quickly
- encourages the reader to use breaks effectively
19. Which of the following idea will the author probably agree with?
- Family members or friends can help avoid procrastination.
- People should do minor tasks before challenging ones.
- People should stay focused on important tasks only.
- People should get on with things however difficult they are.
20. What is the passage mainly about?
- causes of procrastination
- benefits of not putting things off
- effects of procrastination
- causes, effects and solutions of procrastination
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy tập trung vào việc xác định ý chính của đoạn văn và tìm các từ khóa trong câu hỏi.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc và hiểu tương đối tốt. Để tiến bộ hơn, hãy chú ý đến các câu hỏi suy luận và ý nghĩa của từ vựng trong ngữ cảnh.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất chắc chắn. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ và luyện tập với các bài đọc dài và phức tạp hơn.
PASSAGE 3
A few languages have only one class of nouns and treat all nouns the same way, but most languages have different classes of nouns. One common way to classify nouns is by gender. In Indo-European languages, genders typically include feminine, masculine, and neuter. Latin has all three of these, but in many of its modern descendants, such as Spanish and French, the neuter gender has all but disappeared. However, a few words in French, especially pronouns with no clear gender, such as cela (this), are considered neuter by some grammarians.
English is one language that uses natural gender (also called logical gender). Gender depends on biology. Mother is feminine, father is masculine, and chair is neuter. There are, however, a few oddities. Ships are sometimes referred to as she, and so are nations. Animals can be neuter or follow natural gender.
Other languages use grammatical gender. Languages that have only two genders, such as Arabic, Spanish, French, and Urdu, all use grammatical gender. So do some languages, such as German, Russian, and Greek, which have masculine, feminine, and neuter nouns. Sometimes grammatical gender is logical, especially for nouns that refer to people. In Spanish, for example, hijo (son) is masculine and hija (daughter) is feminine. However, while the assignment of gender to certain nouns seems obvious to a native speaker of these languages, it seems arbitrary and confusing to non-native speakers. Why is chaise (chair) feminine in French but banc (bench) masculine? Why, in German, is Fels (rock) masculine, Fenster (window) and Tür (door) feminine? And noun gender varies by culture. In French, soleil (sun) is masculine, while lune (moon) is feminine. The reverse is true in German: Sonne (sun) is feminine, but Mond (moon) is masculine.
In some languages, such as modern Greek, it is impossible to predict the gender of a noun by the form of the noun. Gender must simply be memorized. In other languages, it is possible, or at least it is sometimes possible. In Latin, most singular nouns that end in a are feminine, most singular nouns that end in us are masculine, and most nouns that end in um are neuter. There are, however, exceptions, such as agricola (farmer), which is masculine, and ulmus (elm tree), which is feminine. For some languages, there are complicated and often incomplete rules that relate form to gender. This is true in German. It may be useful to learn the rule that nouns that end in lein and chert (meaning young or small) are all neuter. The noun Mädchen (little girl) is, rather unexpectedly, neuter. However, is it worth learning that, of the 107 single-syllable nouns ending in a nasal sound plus another consonant, 70% are masculine? A student may end up learning more rules than nouns.
Besides gender, there are many other classes of nouns. According to the linguist Carl Meinhof, the Bantu language family has a total of 22 noun classes. Tamil – spoken in Sri Lanka – divides nouns into rational versus non-rational. In Ojibwa (a Native American language), there is a distinction between animate and inanimate nouns. The names of all living things, as well as sacred things and things connected to the earth, belong to the animate class. Still, the assignment is somewhat arbitrary, as the word for raspberry is animate but the word for strawberry is inanimate.
1. What is the passage mainly about?
- grammatical gender of nouns
- noun classification
- animate and inanimate nouns
- rational and non-rational nouns.
2. What is true about Spanish language?
- it has only one class of nouns.
- the neuter gender exists.
- It originates from the Latin language.
- gender depends on biology.
3. According to the grammarians, the French word cela...
- can be either feminine or masculine
- is not really a pronoun
- is neither masculine nor feminine
- should not be considered neuter
4. What is true about the oddities in paragraph 2?
- they are exceptions to the general gender rules in English
- they prove that English follows grammatical gender
- they always follow natural gender
- they show that natural gender is always logical
5. What language does NOT use grammatical gender?
- French
- Spanish
- English
- Russian
6. What best expresses the author’s opinion of rules about the gender of nouns in German?
- They are more important for native speakers of German than for non-native learners.
- It is more important for students to learn these rules than to memorize nouns.
- The only rule that students must know is the one about nouns that end in lein and chen.
- Some of them are confusing and are probably not very useful.
7. What is the main idea of paragraph 5?
- noun classes other than gender
- the work of linguist Carl Meinhof
- noun classes in the Bantu language family
- gender in non-Western languages
8. The word ‘arbitrary’ in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to...
- logical
- inconsistent
- sensible
- rational
9. The author gives Tamil as an example of a language that...
- distinguishes between animate and inanimate
- has 22 noun classes
- distinguishes between thinking and non-thinking
- has a class for all nouns that don’t fit into other classes
10. How does the author show that noun class assignment in Ojibwa is somewhat arbitrary?
- By pointing out that sacred things are considered animate
- By explaining that two types of fruit belong to the same class
- By showing that two very similar items belong to different classes
- by suggesting that raspberries and strawberries are connected to the earth
PASSAGE 4
Nickel (Ni), a precious metal with unique resistance to high temperatures, corrosion, and other extreme conditions, is occasionally used alone but is more often combined with another metal or metals to form an alloy used for different industrial applications. Different combinations of nickel and other metals can be combined to form alloys with specific characteristics.
One common nickel-based alloy is stainless steel, which generally contains 10 percent nickel and 90 percent iron. Alloys containing lower percentages of nickel resist stress and extreme temperatures more poorly compared to alloys with higher percentages of nickel. Alloys with higher percentages of nickel are called super-alloys, and may have nickel percentages as high as 70 percent, along with other substances that give them very specific performance features. Substances commonly combined with nickel to make super-alloys are chromium, iron, and cobalt. Super-alloys are used for chemical processing, the aerospace industry, various medical applications, and power plants.
It is vital that nickel mined for use in super-alloys is as pure as possible, because the parts manufactured from super-alloys are generally responsible for the proper functioning of the larger unit, or “safety-critical.” For this reason, mined nickel is refined specifically until it reaches the proper level of purity to be combined in a super-alloy for safety-critical parts. This extremely pure nickel is called high-purity nickel, and is extremely valuable because only a small portion of the nickel mined worldwide is ever refined to the required state of purity to be labeled high-purity nickel.
Nickel is extracted from ore by roasting at high temperatures. [A] This achieves up to a 75 percent purity level, which is enough for the many alloys creating stainless steel. [B] For more resistant alloys, however, the nickel must be refined further. [C] The most common nickel-refining process is a three-step procedure of flotation, smelting, and something called the Sherritt-Gordon process, in which the nickel is treated with hydrogen sulfide (which removes any copper) and then a solvent that separates the nickel from any cobalt. [D] This procedure can achieve 99 percent purity, which is enough for most industrial applications, but is still not high-purity nickel.
High-purity nickel is further refined using the Mond process achieving 99.99 percent purity to create high-purity nickel. Named after its creator, the Mond process has been in use for over a century and involves several steps of refining. The first involves changing the nickel to nickel carbonyl by combining the nickel with carbon monoxide at a very specific temperature. Then the nickel carbonyl is put through a chamber filled with nickel pellets and stirred until it decomposes and sticks to the pellets, or heated to a temperature of 230 degrees Celsius at which it turns into a fine, pure powder called carbonyl nickel, or high-purity nickel.
Because the refining process to create high-purity nickel requires so many steps and such specific conditions, it is not performed in many locations. This means that high-purity nickel is quite expensive, and the producers of high-purity nickel have significant control over the market price. This creates a unique industry situation, and the two main producers of high-purity nickel have been investigated by authorities in several countries to determine if they have been colluding on price or exercising undue control over prices through the duopoly in the industry.
11. What is the passage mainly about?
- Nickel-based common alloys
- Nickel-based super alloys
- Nickel extraction
- Nickel mining
12. What can be inferred from paragraph 2?
- super-alloys resist stress and extreme temperatures better than regular alloys do
- super-alloys contain iron just as stainless steel does
- super-alloys contain cobalt instead of iron
- stainless steel is a super-alloy with stress-resistant characteristics
13. The word ‘refined’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to...
- paid
- mined
- combined
- purified
14. How are super-alloys different from alloys?
- they contain higher percentages of nickel
- they contain higher percentages of stainless steel
- they require longer mining times
- they do not contain nickel
15. Part of the Sherritt-Gordon process involves...
- mining the nickel
- removing copper from the nickel
- creating a super-alloy
- achieving 99.9 percent purity
16. The phrase ‘This procedure’ in paragraph 4 refers to...
- the alloy process
- the Sherritt-Gordon process
- the Mond process
- the carbonyl nickel process
17. What is true about the Mond process?
- The Mond process and Sherritt-Gordon process are interchangeable.
- The Mond process achieves lower purity than the Sherritt-Gordon process does.
- The Mond process must be started immediately after mining the nickel to be effective.
- The Mond process achieves higher purity than the Sherritt-Gordon process does.
18. In which space (marked [A], [B], [C] and [D] in the passage) will the following sentence fit? *There are two processes used to refine nickel to a high-enough level of purity to be used in more resistant alloys.*
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
19. Which is NOT implied in the passage?
- Nickel not refined and made into super-alloys is made into stainless steel.
- Nickel must be refined before it can be combined into a super-alloy.
- The Mond process produces high-purity nickel.
- The Sherritt-Gordon process is not sufficient to refine nickel enough to make safety-critical parts.
20. Why does the author mention the cost of refining high-purity nickel in paragraph 6?
- to explain why safety-critical parts are so expensive to manufacture
- to propose a solution to the revenue problems the producers of high-purity nickel face
- to question why producers can’t lower prices to the market
- to explain why the two producers of high-purity nickel have such influence over the price of high-purity nickel
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng đọc hiểu cơ bản. Hãy luyện tập đọc các đoạn văn ngắn và trả lời các câu hỏi về ý chính trước.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
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Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Bạn có thể thử thách bản thân với các bài đọc dài và phức tạp hơn.
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1
Questions 1-10
Failure: We all avoid it, and most of us fear it. However, without failure, progress would be impossible. Indeed, the word success comes from the Latin succedere, meaning “to come after.” And what does success usually come after? Failure. It seems that one cannot exist without the other.
Learning from Failure
Every failure – even the worst ones – helps us learn to do things differently in the future. “I learned how not to climb the first four times I tried to summit Everest.” says mountaineer Pete Athans, who has now reached the world’s highest peak seven times. “Failure gives you a chance to refine your approach. You’re taking risks more and more intelligently.” In Athans’ case, his setbacks taught him that it was important to choose a less challenging route for his first climb up Everest. Learning from past mistakes and making changes helped him to reach the top successfully.
Failure also reminds us that things can go wrong – sometimes with disastrous results. Austrian Gerlinde Kaltenbrunner is the first woman to summit all 14 of the world’s 8,000-meter peaks without extra oxygen. In 2007, while climbing in Nepal, she was in an avalanche. Luckily, she survived, but two nearby Spanish climbers died. The experience taught Kaltenbrunner that no matter how prepared a person is, bad things can still happen. The events of that day troubled her deeply, but in time, Kaltenbrunner decided she had to learn from the experience and move on. “I realized that I couldn’t make the tragedy unhappen.” she says, “and I couldn’t stop climbing – this is my life.”
The Value of Negative Results
Accepting failure is not easy for many, though. We are often reluctant to admit failure because our professional reputations depend on success. However, things are slowly changing, notably in the fields of business and science. In the past decade, for instance, some scientific journals – mostly in medicine and conservation have published reports of failed experiments. The belief is that the science community can also learn from “negative” results and that this can eventually lead to positive outcomes.
In many ways, the business world already understands the value of negative results. To encourage entrepreneurship, the Netherlands-based ABN AMRO bank started an Institute of Brilliant Failures to learn more about what works and what doesn’t in banking. Similarly, Eli Lilly and Company, the pharmaceutical corporation, has “R&D outcome celebrations”– failure parties – to study data about drugs that don’t work. (Almost 90 percent of all drug trials fail and the drugs cannot be sold.)
In fact, one of the business world’s most famous failures eventually became one of its biggest successes, in part because the product’s makers learned from their mistakes. In the early 1990s, Apple Corporation created a handheld device called the Apple Newton. The product, though unique at the time, was expensive and heavy; moreover, some of its most important features didn’t work properly. Consequently, it became one of Apple’s biggest failures, and in 1998, the company stopped selling it. However, Apple’s CEO, Steve Jobs, believed the product had potential and he began to explore ways of improving it. In time, this led to the creation of the iPhone and the iPad, two of the company’s most successful products.
The story of the Apple Newton can teach us another important lesson about failure. Not only should we try to learn from it; if we want to succeed, we must also be persistent. Though Apple stopped selling the Newton in 1998, the first iPhone wasn’t available until 2007. It took a lot of research and hard work to go from the Apple Newton to iPhone, but in the end, the effort paid off.
Ultimately, there is a lot we can learn by studying mistakes. Perhaps the most important lesson is that failure and success are two sides of the same coin. One truly cannot exist without the other
1. What is the passage mainly about?
- Success and fear are basically the same thing.
- Failure is always followed by success.
- You may need to fail before you can succeed.
- Accepting failure is very difficult.
2. What is true about Pete Athans?
- He successfully climbed up Everest seven times.
- He set back his climb to wait for other mountaineers.
- He chose a challenging route for his first climb up Everest.
- He made many mistakes even on his successful climb up Everest.
3. What did Gerline say about failure?
- If people are well prepared; they can do whatever they like.
- She learned that she had to continue her climb even though disasters occurred.
- She made some mistakes in her climb in 2007.
- She stopped climbing because she saw two climbers die.
4. What is the purpose of the second and third paragraphs?
- to teach us what not to do when mountain climbing
- to convince us that success is something anyone can achieve
- to show how bad things can happen in any situation
- to give examples of how failure can be a good thing
5. Why are some scientific journals starting to publish the results of failed experiments?
- to encourage new experiments in other fields
- so that people can discuss and share their findings at failure parties
- to admit that the scientific community makes mistakes
- because of the belief that negative results can lead to successful outcomes
6. Which of the following is NOT true about the Apple Newton?
- It was heavy and expensive.
- Some of its features didn’t work properly.
- It was a unique handheld device.
- It was Apple’s first successful product.
7. According to the passage, what did the experience of the Apple Newton eventually lead to?
- Steve Jobs becoming Apple’s CEO
- the creation of the iPad and iPhone
- a move toward selling more expensive products
- the introduction of a cheaper version of the product
8. In paragraph 6, the word ‘persistent’ could be replaced by
- sociable
- hard-working
- ambitious
- determined
9. Which advice would the author most likely agree with?
- If you want to be successful, ask successful people what they did to succeed.
- Accept that some people fail and not everyone is meant to succeed.
- If you make a mistake, ask yourself what went wrong and try to learn from it.
- You should think of failure and success as the same thing.
10. In paragraph 7, the word ‘Ultimately’ could be replaced by
- Finally
- However
- After that
- For example
PASSAGE 2
Questions 11-20
A new road that connects the Pacific with the Atlantic could bring riches – and environmental ruin.
Bridging a Continent
In early 2012, the Transoceanic Highway opened to public vehicles for the first time. A dream of Peru’s leaders since the 1950s, work on the vast network of roads and bridges began in 2006 and was completed in late 2011. Today, the east-west passageway spans 2,600 kilometers (1,600 miles). From Peru’s Pacific Ocean coastline, it continues across the Andes Mountains and through a large part of the Amazon rain forest in the Peruvian state of Madre de Dios. It then travels into Brazil, where it connects with a network of existing highways to the Atlantic.
Improving People’s Lives
In addition to making travel faster and easier, supporters say the highway will also be good for business. There is enormous demand in North America and Asia for Brazilian and Peruvian products, including soybeans, beef, and gold. A number of companies in Cusco and Puerto Maldonado also sell wood to different corners of the world. Many of these companies transport their lumber to the Pacific, where it travels by ship to other countries. Thanks to the highway, wood can now reach the Pacific in days; in the past, it could take a week or more. This lowers costs and allows the wood to reach a company’s customers sooner, and also in better condition. In the long run, say many business owners, this will mean more profit.
Environmental Challenges
Despite the highway’s many potential benefits, environmentalists are concerned. The Transoceanic passes directly through a large part of the Amazon rain forest, in the state of Madre de Dios in Peru. According to a Peruvian government study, the forested area in the western mountains of this state has the greatest biodiversity of any place on Earth, and until recently, large parts of the forest were in pristine condition. As more people are moving into the region, environmentalists are worrying about the impact this will have on the Amazon’s plants and animals, many of which are found nowhere else.
Shortly after the highway opened, large numbers of people began coming into Puerto Maldonado from all over Peru – and the world – to mine gold. There’s a lot of money to be made in mining, as well as in farming, says environmental photographer Gabby Salazar. “I think we’re going to see a big increase in farming,” she says. “Right across the border in Brazil, you see soybean farms all over the place.” Studies show three-quarters of the deforestation of the Brazilian Amazon occurs within 50 kilometers (30 miles) of a highway, and environmentalists like salazar are concerned that the same thing will happen in Peru. “It’s having an impact on the environment,” she explains. “It’s having an impact on the people as well.”
Faced with these risks, many Peruvians talk about the importance of being practical. “In rural Peru, a lot of people are living in poverty, so it’s very difficult to say don’t build the highway.” explains Roger Mustalish, president of the Amazon Center for Environmental Education and Research. “But every time you see a road like this going through, you soon see major changes.” Will these changes be mostly positive or negative? Many Peruvians are hopeful, but only time will tell.
11. What is the passage mainly about?
- the impact a highway will have on the environment and people of Peru
- how the Brazilian government helped the people of Peru build a new highway
- a new development that is resulting in mining and farming jobs
- how environmentalists are protecting the Amazon’s diverse wildlife
12. What is true about the Transoceanic Highway?
- Its construction began in the 1950s.
- It helps connect the Pacific Ocean with Brazil.
- It was opened to the public in 2006.
- It begins at the Atlantic Ocean.
13. What is NOT a product exported from Brazil to North America?
- soybeans
- diamond
- wood
- beef
14. The phrase ‘in the long run’ in paragraph 3 could be replaced by
- on the other hand
- as expected
- eventually
- optimistically
15. What is NOT given as a reason the highway will be good for Peru?
- The cost of transporting goods will be lower.
- Goods will reach customers in better condition.
- It will increase the number of tourists in Peru.
- Goods will reach customers faster.
16. Which of the following concerns does the reading specifically mention?
- Increased mining will lead to soil erosion.
- Farming will lead to an increase in water pollution.
- The highway will have an impact on plants and animals.
- The cities along the highway will become overpopulated.
17. According to the passage, which activity has an impact on the environment?
- Cutting down trees for wood.
- Building hotels and restaurants along the highway.
- Killing animals in the forest.
- Mining gold and farming.
18. What does ‘these risks’ in paragraph 6 refer to?
- environmental risks
- financial risks
- transportation risks
- depopulation risks
19. What would be the best heading for the final paragraph?
- A Positive Future
- Finding the Right Balance
- An End to Poverty
- Say No to Highways
20. The author’s attitude toward the impact of the highway can be described as
- positive
- negative
- unsure
- indifferent
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy tập trung vào việc đọc kỹ câu hỏi và tìm thông tin tương ứng trong bài đọc.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc và nắm bắt ý chính. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy chú ý đến các chi tiết nhỏ và các từ đồng nghĩa.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất tốt! Bạn có thể tự tin chinh phục các bài đọc phức tạp hơn.
PASSAGE 3
Questions 1-10
After 45 years of the queen’s rule, James I succeeded Elizabeth I to the English throne in 1603, at which point the English economy was struggling. The population of England was swelling, food production was insufficient, and prices were high. Despite its instability, a few industries brought reliable income to the English economy. In particular, many merchants relied on the export of cloth to continental Europe. For the first decade of James I’s reign, the cloth trade prospered and was an important source of revenue for the English. However, the king was to make a serious mistake that would eventually lead to the fall of the English cloth trade.
In 1614, William Cockayne, an English merchant and politician, proposed that James I make a dramatic change to the way the English exported cloth. At the time, the English produced primarily unfinished cloth. This meant that they sold cloth that had not been dyed, bleached, or otherwise processed. Most often, companies in the Netherlands bought the plain cloth from England and finished it themselves. The Dutch were experts in the complex procedures and technologies required to finish cloth, and these processes added significant value to the unfinished cloth they had purchased from England. As a result, Dutch cloth companies could sell their goods at much higher prices than the English could. Hoping to transfer these profits to English companies, Cockayne proposed that the English finish the cloth themselves to increase the value of their cloth exports. He also asked James I to establish a company, which was to function under Cockayne’s leadership, that would control and monopolize the export of finished cloth to continental Europe. The king was in need of money, and the prospect of increased revenue appealed to him. Thus, he agreed to Cockayne’s plan and, per Cockayne’s request, founded the King’s Merchant Adventurers, a company with a primary purpose of exporting finished cloth.
However, Cockayne’s plan disrupted the previously steady English cloth trade and was ultimately ineffective for a number of reasons. First, James I’s support of Cockayne’s company created a rift between the king and many powerful English merchants, particularly the members of the unfinished cloth company called the Merchant Adventurers, which had been cast aside in favor of Cockayne’s group. Furthermore, the Dutch, who had previously been Europe’s main supplier of finished cloth, responded to English competition by refusing to purchase any English cloth products, and many other European nations did the same. In addition, merchants in other countries refused to ship English cloth or charged English businesspeople inflated fees for shipping. The resistance from abroad was particularly damaging to the King’s Merchant Adventurers because it could not afford the ships that were necessary to transport its goods to European markets.
In addition to the difficulties caused by its widespread unpopularity, Cockayne’s company was unable to produce quality goods. For one, Cockayne did not have the funds to acquire the machines needed to finish cloth. [A] Moreover, English cloth makers were not experts in the finishing process and could not match the high-quality finished cloth produced by their competitors in the Netherlands. [B] By 1617, just three years after the company was established, James I had dissolved the King’s Merchant Adventurers. [C] The failure of the King’s Merchant Adventurers did more than bankrupt those who had supported its efforts. [D] The damage Cockayne’s plan inflicted on the cloth trade had disastrous economic effects on other industries as well.
Question 1
The word ‘succeeded’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
- did away with
- came after
- turned aside
- kept back
Question 2
The word ‘its’ in paragraph 1 refers to
- population
- food production
- income
- the English economy
Question 3
Why does the author mention insufficient food production in paragraph 1?
- to show the need for the expansion of the English cloth trade.
- to show the consequences of heavily emphasizing the cloth trade.
- to show the poor state of the English economy in 1603.
- to show the king’s mismanagement of the country.
Question 4
What is NOT a change that William Cockayne proposed to the English cloth trade?
- The establishment of a company that would exclusively handle the cloth trade
- A focus on increasing the value of cloth created in England
- The interruption of cloth supply to merchants in the Netherlands
- A shift in the primary activities of the English cloth industry
Question 5
What best paraphrases the following sentence in paragraph 2? *The Dutch were experts in the complex procedures and technologies required to finish cloth, and these processes added significant value to the unfinished cloth they had purchased from England*
- The procedures and technologies used to create finished cloth, which were often very complex, were primarily used by Dutch workers.
- Unfinished cloth from England was typically finished by the Dutch, who were experts in the complicated procedures that resulted in more valuable cloth.
- Finished cloth from England was often more valuable than Dutch cloth due to the complicated processes used to treat the cloth.
- Unfinished cloth from England lost its value because the Dutch were able to create finished cloth by using expert techniques.
Question 6
Why did the king agree to Cockayne’s proposals?
- He wanted to improve the English economy quickly.
- He believed that the changes would allow England to expand the cloth industry.
- He worried about England’s overreliance on trade partnerships with the Netherlands.
- He wanted to encourage technological advancement in English industries.
Question 7
What is true about the Merchant Adventurers?
- It continued to sell cloth to the Dutch after the execution of Cockayne’s plan.
- Its members objected to the changes proposed by Cockayne.
- It was forced to focus primarily on shipping instead of the cloth trade.
- It became the top English trader due to the unpopularity of Cockayne’s plan.
Question 8
The word ‘inflated’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
- unfair
- special
- secret
- increased
Question 9
Which of the following was a factor in the King’s Merchant Adventurers inability to create quality goods?
- It did not have financial support from the king.
- It couldn’t afford to pay cloth-finishing experts.
- Its employees didn’t have the necessary knowledge about finishing cloth.
- It had an inadequate supply of unfinished cloth.
Question 10
In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit? *He also reinstated the previous cloth export company, the Merchant Adventurers.*
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
PASSAGE 4
Questions 11-20
In 1997, multinational corporate giant Unilever joined with the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) to create the Marine Stewardship Council (MSC), an organization created to set standards for sustainable, environmentally sound practices for the fishing industry. These standards were voluntary for fisheries and fish suppliers, but full compliance with the standards earned any supplier MSC certification, which assured buyers that the seafood was caught and handled responsibly. Seafood with MSC certification earns higher prices on the wholesale and retail markets, so achieving MSC certification is worth it for producers. The cost of making the changes required to become MSC certified ranges from $50,000 to $500,000 for each fishing boat operator or processor, and can take up to two years to complete the rigorous process. Despite this, becoming MSC certified makes sense for operators and processors because of the higher prices their products command.
There are two standards managed by the MSC: the environmental standard for sustainable fishing and the chain of custody standard for seafood traceability. The environmental standard contains three practices: 1) sustainable fish stocks, 2) minimizing environmental impact, and 3) effective management. Each of these 3 practices is supported by approximately 10 more detailed criteria.
Sustainable fish stocks are important so that the seafood population continues to thrive. Overfishing of certain species threatens their existence, so to prevent extinction, the MSC requires boat operators and fisheries to prove that they are fishing numbers of each species that allow for repopulation. The standard states that “The fishing activity must be at a level which is sustainable for the fish population. Any certified fishery must operate so that fishing can continue indefinitely and is not overexploiting the resources.”
Minimizing environmental impact means that fisheries commit to leave the ecosystems and neighborhoods in which they operate undamaged by their operations. The standard states, “Fishing operations should be managed to maintain the structure, productivity, function and diversity of the ecosystem on which the fishery depends.”
The effective management requirement is designed to prevent fisheries from receiving MSC certification once and then not responding to changes in the environment, local laws and policies, or fish populations. This requires fisheries to think about possible changes that can occur and how they will respond to those changes in a way that keeps them in compliance with MSC certification standards.
The chain of custody standard is designed to ensure that fish that is labeled with the MSC certification was caught at a certified fishery, and that noncertified fish does not enter the MSC-certified system. This standard establishes processes to check origin and chain of custody at all steps in the chain.
The actual MSC certification process relies on independent agencies, certified by the MSC, that audit fishing boat, fishery, and processing plant practices and chains of custody to guarantee that seafood is managed according to procedure from the time it is caught to the time it is sold to consumers. Because of the structure of the fishing industry, with many small, independent boat owners fishing and selling to various processors and suppliers, this chain of command can be complex and confusing. In addition, there is room for abuse of the system, with unscrupulous dealers selling frozen and thawed seafood as fresh, or lying about the location of origin or fishing practices they participate in.
Question 11
The word ‘rigorous’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
- dead
- difficult
- ancient
- renewable
Question 12
What is NOT true about the process of obtaining MSC certification?
- It can be costly.
- It can be lengthy.
- It is obligatory.
- It is worth because of the economic benefits.
Question 13
What best paraphrases the following sentence in paragraph 3? *Overfishing of certain species threatens their existence, so to prevent extinction, the MSC requires boat operators and fisheries to prove that they are fishing numbers of each species that allow for repopulation.*
- Catching too many of one type of fish can lead to extinction, so the MSC asks fisheries to ensure that they aren’t catching so many of any one type so that they can reproduce.
- If too many of one type of fish are caught, the MSC cannot certify people who catch that type of fish because there won’t be enough fish left to reproduce.
- If too many of one type of fish are caught, none of them can be certified by the MSC because no one can be certain that the fish that repopulate are caught in a responsible way.
- If too many of one type of fish are caught, boat operators and fisheries may end up putting themselves out of business because they won’t have any fish left to catch.
Question 14
The word ‘indefinitely’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
- earlier than expected
- after a certain date
- at no specific time
- without authorization
Question 15
The MSC is concerned with sustainable fish stocks because it wants to
- bill fisheries more for overfished species
- breed new species of fish
- guarantee delivery of species ordered by retailers
- preserve fish species from extinction
Question 16
The word ‘them’ in paragraph 5 refers to
- fisheries
- fish
- changes
- MSC
Question 17
The phrase ‘This standard’ in paragraph 6 refers to
- the chain of custody standard
- the fisheries standard
- the environmental standard
- the sustainable standard
Question 18
Why does the MSC use a network of independent agencies in the certification process?
- it cannot finance certification processes alone
- certification is too difficult for the MSC to earn without help
- no single agency can be responsible for standards as stringent as the MSC’s standards
- the chain of suppliers is too complex for one agency alone to monitor
Question 19
What can describe the author’s attitude toward MSC certification?
- supportive
- opposed
- skeptical
- indifferent
Question 20
Why does the author mention illegal activities in the supply chain in the seventh paragraph?
- to give reasons for the MSC’s use of multiple agencies to help with certification
- to show examples of crimes committed by MSC-certified fisheries
- to explain how fisheries can meet the standards set by the MSC
- to question the usefulness of MSC certification entirely
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện nhiều. Hãy tập trung vào việc đọc chậm, nắm ý chính và xác định từ khóa trong câu hỏi.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc và tìm thông tin tương đối tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy luyện tập phân tích các câu hỏi suy luận và quản lý thời gian hiệu quả.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Bạn có kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích văn bản rất tốt. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này.
Listen to the audio and answer questions 1-35.
LISTENING
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording. There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only. Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
PART 1
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.
Question 1: What is the reason for the call?
- To get Mr. Clifford's contact information
- To receive payment for a service
- To discuss available Internet packages
- To set up an installation date
Question 2: Where was the first facility?
- Portland
- Milton
- Rochester
- St. Louis
Question 3: What is the man calling about?
- A piece of luggage
- An airline delay
- A document
- A travel itinerary
Question 4: Who most likely is the speaker?
- A cook
- A receptionist
- A waiter
- A food critic
Question 5: When will St. Paul Street be closed to vehicles?
- November 9
- November 10
- November 12
- Next weekend
Question 6: What type of event is being held?
- A sporting event
- An awards ceremony
- A concert
- A theatrical performance
Question 7: What is the caller waiting for?
- A medical prescription
- A payment invoice
- Test results
- Hospital forms
Question 8: How does the master bedroom differ from the other rooms?
- It was decorated first.
- It is much bigger than the others.
- It has more furniture.
- It looks more modern.
PART 2
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation.
Question 9: What would the man like Julie to do?
- Meet with the president
- Come to the office later
- Change the appointment time
- Contact some clients
Question 10: What time is the appointment originally set?
- At 1 o'clock
- At 2 o'clock
- At 3 o'clock
- At 4 o'clock
Question 11: What will the man do this afternoon?
- Go to the emergency room
- Relocate his office
- Meet with some clients
- Call the president's office
Question 12: What time will the man start his appointment this afternoon?
- At 1 o'clock
- At 2 o'clock
- At 3 o'clock
- At 4 o'clock
Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation.
Question 13: What is the man's problem?
- His Internet is slow.
- His computer is broken.
- He cannot contact technical support.
- His Internet provider closed down.
Question 14: What will the man get when he calls the company?
- A new account.
- A new contract discount.
- A new credit card.
- A new computer.
Question 15: Why does the woman recommend Roger's Inc.?
- They give discounts on used computers.
- They offer great technical assistance.
- They provide a money-back guarantee.
- They repair computers free of charge.
Question 16: What does the woman ask the man to do?
- Give her name when ordering a service.
- Email the company his details.
- Go to a nearby computer shop.
- Talk to a service staff member.
Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation.
Question 17: Where would the speakers most likely be?
- At a convention center
- At a local hotel
- At a shopping mall
- At a company warehouse
Question 18: What will the woman give Mr. Dyson?
- A name tag
- A guest list
- An information package
- An operating manual
Question 19: What time does the event begin?
- At 8 a.m
- At 9 a.m
- At 10 a.m
- At 11 a.m
Question 20: What does Mr. Dyson inquire about?
- The name of the conference
- The venue of the event
- The number of guests
- Things he can bring to the event
PART 3
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures. The talks or lectures will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk or lecture. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following lecture.
Question 21: What is the lecture mainly about?
- A process for meeting human needs
- A system of classifying human needs
- A comparison of different approaches to human development
- Experiments testing a theory of human development
Question 22: According to the professor, what did Maslow realize from studying monkeys?
- They are very genetically similar to humans
- They need very little other than food and water
- They placed meeting certain needs before meeting others
- They need the same things humans need
Question 23: According to the professor, which of the following is a feature of self-actualized individuals?
- Having completed growth
- Being well-loved by all people
- Having a limited sense of humor
- Having a well-developed awareness of ethics
Question 24: Why does the professor say “get the idea”?
- To challenge students to explain what she meant
- To check the students’ understanding of the preceding levels
- To introduce the next idea in the lecture
- To see if students need additional examples
Question 25: What would the professor be most likely to talk about next?
- How educators have applied Maslow's ideas in classrooms
- What a person can do to attain self-actualization
- How Maslow's ideas are challenged by experts
- Why certain people meet more of their needs than others
Questions 26 to 30 refer to the following lecture.
Question 26: What is the lecture mainly about?
- The differences between salt and pepper.
- How pepper made it to our dinner table.
- The structure of the medieval European spice trade.
- The symbolic importance of spices in the Middle Ages.
Question 27: According to the professor, Europeans probably did NOT ________.
- use salt and herbs to preserve food
- use pepper and spices to preserve food
- use salt and herbs to flavor food
- use pepper and spices to flavor food
Question 28: According to the professor, why was salt so valuable to ancient people?
- It tasted better than pepper, cinnamon, or other spices.
- It could keep foods from spoiling.
- It had its origins in mysterious and distant lands.
- It is necessary to human health.
Question 29: What does the professor suggest about medieval Europeans’ attitudes toward pepper and salt?
- Pepper tasted better than salt.
- Salt had less symbolic value than pepper.
- Salt had become part of European culture but pepper had not.
- Pepper had less preservative value than salt.
Question 30: Why does the professor mention that most Europeans in the Dark Ages only knew about the world within a ten-mile radius of their homes?
- To illustrate how common spices today could seem exotic to them
- To show students how the spice trade changed European social organization
- To emphasize their mistrust of outsiders and dependence on the Church
- To point out how spices were generally traded only short distances
Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following conversation.
Question 31: Why does the student go to see her professor?
- To ask if the professor's website is working properly
- To let the professor know she finds the online site very informative
- To request help with her computer
- To see why she's the one having trouble understanding the course
Question 32: What problem does the professor think the student is having with her computer?
- He doesn't think she is using the software correctly.
- Her trouble could be caused by something other than a virus.
- The problem he was having with the website has been fixed.
- She's been having difficulty with the website all long.
Question 33: What problem is the student having?
- She can't access the material on the website.
- She is having trouble with the class.
- The website seems to respond slowly to her input.
- When she talks, she hears her words shortly after she says them.
Question 34: What does the professor think about the computer help desk?
- Its staff create a lot of nuisance programs.
- Its staff run an ethical business.
- Its staff often cause delays to computer systems.
- Its staff are professional and helpful.
Question 35: What will the student probably do next?
- Go to the store to buy an anti-spyware program for her computer
- Get a second opinion from another professor
- Have her computer checked for adware and spyware problems
- Check with her classmates to see if any of them are having problems
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Cần cố gắng nhiều: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng nghe cơ bản và làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi của bài thi VSTEP.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc nghe các bài nói dài và phức tạp hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng nghe của bạn rất tốt. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ để đạt được kết quả cao nhất trong kỳ thi.
READING
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of each question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Time allowance: You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 10
It was previously believed that dinosaurs were cold-blooded creatures, like reptiles. However, a recent discovery has led researchers to believe they may have been warm-blooded. The fossilized remains of a 66 million-year-old dinosaur's heart were discovered and examined by x-ray. The basis for the analysis that they were warm-blooded is the number of chambers in the heart as well as the existence of a single aorta.
Most reptiles have three chambers in their hearts, although some do have four. But those that have four chambers, such as the crocodile, have two arteries to mix the oxygen-heavy blood with oxygen-lean blood. Reptiles are cold-blooded, meaning that they are dependent on the environment for body heat. Yet the fossilized heart had four chambers in the heart as well as a single aorta. The single aorta means that the oxygen-rich blood was completely separated from the oxygen-poor blood and sent through the aorta to all parts of the body.
Mammals, on the other hand, are warm-blooded, meaning that they generate their own body heat and are thus more tolerant of temperature extremes. Birds and mammals, because they are warm-blooded, move more swiftly and have greater physical endurance than reptiles.
Scientists believe that the evidence now points to the idea that all dinosaurs were actually warm-blooded. Ironically, the particular dinosaur in which the discovery was made was a Tescelosaurus, which translates to “marvelous lizard”. A lizard, of course, is a reptile.
Question 1
The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to ________.
- researchers
- dinosaurs
- reptiles
- discoveries
Question 2
According to the author, what theory was previously held and now is being questioned?
- That dinosaurs were cold-blooded.
- That dinosaurs were warm-blooded.
- That dinosaurs had four-chambered hearts.
- That dinosaurs were swifter and stronger than reptiles.
Question 3
What is the basis of the new theory?
- They performed mathematical calculations and determined that dinosaurs must have had four-chambered hearts.
- They found a fossil of an entire dinosaur and reviewed the arteries and veins flowing from and to the heart.
- They viewed a fossil of a dinosaur’s heart and discovered that it had two aortas.
- They found a fossil of a dinosaur’s heart and discovered it had four chambers and one aorta.
Question 4
The word “those” in the second paragraph refers to ________.
- hearts
- chambers
- reptiles
- arteries
Question 5
The author implies that reptiles ________.
- are cold-blooded
- have four-chambered hearts
- have one aorta
- are faster and have more endurance than mammals
Question 6
The word “completely” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- constantly
- unevenly
- partially
- entirely
Question 7
The word “generate” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- use
- lose
- produce
- tolerate
Question 8
The author implies that birds ________.
- move slower and have less endurance than reptiles
- move faster and have greater endurance than reptiles
- move faster and have greater endurance than dinosaurs
- move slower and have less endurance than dinosaurs
Question 9
What does the author imply by the sentence: Ironically, the particular dinosaur in which the discovery was made was a Tescelosaurus, which translates to “marvelous lizard”.
- It is unusual that the creature would have a name with the suffix of a dinosaur.
- It is surprising that the fossilized heart was discovered.
- It is paradoxical that the dinosaur’s name includes the word lizard, because now scientists believe it is not a lizard.
- It should have been realized long ago that dinosaurs were warm-blooded.
Question 10
The word “particular” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- special
- specific
- sparse
- spatial
PASSAGE 2 QUESTIONS 11 - 20
Sometimes people worry about the germs that they come into contact with daily. In fact, most people would be surprised to learn just how many microbes actually inhabit a human’s body at any given time, in addition to the larger visitors that come around occasionally. Such natural species that regularly come into contact with our bodies include mites, lice, yeast, and fungus, just to name a few. We are, in fact, an ecosystem much like a rainforest is to the natural flora and fauna that call it home.
Lice, or nits, are particularly horrible to even think about. To learn that one’s child has been found in school with head lice can cause trauma and shame. People think that having lice is a symptom of being unclean, although one can be infected by contact with somebody else who has them. Although lice are not that common in general circles, children can easily acquire them just because of their close contact with other children at school or play. Some large cities host high-priced nitpickers who make a living removing head lice from children.
Mites on the human body are much more common, and cleanliness does not eliminate the chance of having them. They are also microscopic, so they are invisible to the naked eye. There are a number of different species of mites, two of which have the human face as their natural habitat, particularly the skin of the forehead. Others are very content among human hair, living among the follicles of the eyelashes, eyebrows, and scalp hair.
Not all such inhabitants are harmful. In fact, even the annoying mite lives on dead skin cells, actually doing us a favor by removing them. The dreaded dust mite, for example, blamed for causing allergies, removes dead skin from bed coverings. And harmless bacteria often keep potentially harmful bacteria from being able to survive. So people should not try to eliminate mites from their bodies, although some have tried. Some sufferers of obsessive/compulsive disorder have scrubbed themselves raw trying to eliminate all scavengers from their bodies, only to damage their skin, and all to no avail.
Certain types of yeast also regularly live on the human body, sometimes causing annoyances. One common type lives on the oil produced in the skin of the face or scalp, causing a condition known as pityriasis versicolor, which is a scaling and discoloration of the skin.
Ailments such as athlete’s foot are caused by a fungus that grows in warm, moist conditions. To avoid them or avoid a recurrence, patients are encouraged to keep their feet dry and cool, which of course may not be easy, depending on one’s work or personal habits. Ringworm is also a fungus acquired by contact with keratin-rich soil in many parts of the world.
Besides the tiny inhabitants, we are also regularly harassed by insects that feed off of our bodies, like mosquitoes, ticks, and fleas, which sometimes deposit harmful illnesses at the same time they probe the skin for the blood on which they live. Mosquitoes have been known to cause malaria and yellow fever, as well as encephalitis. Fleas have transmitted bubonic plague, and ticks have caused lyme disease.
Just like a river, an ocean, a rainforest, or any other ecological wonder in which numerous species survive, feeding upon other inhabitants, our bodies are natural providers of nutrition and life for various small and microscopic species.
Question 11
The word “inhabit” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- escape
- feed on
- live in
- abuse
Question 12
The author's main point is ________.
- to describe how the human body is host to a number of different harmful and harmless inhabitants and visitors
- to describe the dangerous ailments that can result from insects and microbes
- to warn people about the dangers of being attacked by small life forms
- to describe how to rid oneself of bacteria and insects
Question 13
The author infers that lice and mites are different in that ________.
- lice are not harmful, but mites are
- mites live only on the skin, and lice live only in the hair
- mites are treatable, and lice are not
- mites are totally unavoidable, while lice may be avoidable
Question 14
The word “shame” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- anger
- embarrassment
- disbelief
- contentment
Question 15
The word “their” in the second paragraph refers to ________.
- lice's
- schools'
- circles
- children's
Question 16
The word “Others” in the third paragraph refers to ________.
- foreheads
- follicles
- mite species
- habitats
Question 17
The author indicates that lice are also known as ________.
- yeast
- nits
- microbes
- ticks
Question 18
The author indicates that a nitpicker is ________.
- somebody who removes lice professionally
- somebody who is afraid of mites
- a doctor who treats patients for infection
- somebody who has been bitten by a tick
Question 19
The author infers that ________.
- being host to insects and microbes is unwise
- one can avoid infestation by microbes
- insects are the cause of microbial infestation
- being host to insects and microbes is inevitable
Question 20
What does the author mean by the statement “Not all such inhabitants are harmful” at the beginning of the fourth paragraph?
- Mites are the same as yeast.
- Some mites eat other harmful mites.
- Mites actually are beneficial because they remove dead skin particles from the body and habitat.
- The diseases mites carry do not pass to humans.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy bắt đầu bằng việc đọc các đoạn văn ngắn và tập trung vào việc xác định ý chính.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc và hiểu thông tin tương đối tốt. Hãy luyện tập thêm để tăng tốc độ và độ chính xác khi trả lời câu hỏi.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Bạn đã sẵn sàng để chinh phục các thử thách khó hơn.
PASSAGE 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 10
The Asian migration hypothesis is today supported by most of the scientific evidence. The first “hard” data linking American Indians with Asians appeared in the 1980s with the finding that Indians and Northeast Asians share a common and distinctive pattern in the arrangement of the teeth. But perhaps the most compelling support for the hypothesis comes from genetic research. Studies comparing the DNA variation of populations around the world consistently demonstrate the close genetic relationship of the two populations, and recently geneticists studying a virus sequestered in the kidneys of all humans found that the strain of virus carried by Navajos and Japanese is nearly identical, while that carried by Europeans and Africans is quite different.
The migration could have begun over a land bridge connecting the continents. During the last Ice Age 70,000 to 10,000 years ago, huge glaciers locked up massive volumes of water and sea levels were as much as 300 feet lower than today. Asia and North America were joined by a huge subcontinent of ice-free, treeless grassland, 750 miles wide. Geologists have named this area Beringia, from the Bering Straits. Summers there were warm, winters were cold, dry and almost snow-free. This was a perfect environment for large mammals-mammoth and mastodon, bison, horse, reindeer, camel, and saiga (a goat-like antelope). Small bands of Stone Age hunter-gatherers were attracted by these animal populations, which provided them not only with food but with hides for clothing and shelter, dung for fuel, and bones for tools and weapons. Accompanied by a husky-like species of dog, hunting bands gradually moved as far east as the Yukon River basin of northern Canada, where field excavations have uncovered the fossilized jawbones of several dogs and bone tools estimated to be about 27,000 years old.
Other evidence suggests that the migration from Asia began about 30,000 years ago - around the same time that Japan and Scandinavia were being settled. This evidence is based on blood type. The vast majority of modern Native Americans have type O blood and a few have type A, but almost none have type B. Because modern Asian populations include all three blood types, however, the migrations must have begun before the evolution of type B, which geneticists believe occurred about 30,000 years ago.
By 25,000 years ago human communities were established in western Beringia, which is present-day Alaska. [A] But access to the south was blocked by a huge glacial sheet covering much of what is today Canada. How did the hunters get over those 2,000 miles of deep ice? The argument is that the climate began to warm with the passing of the Ice Age, and about 13,000 B.C.E., glacial melting created an ice-free corridor along the eastern front range of the Rocky Mountains. [B] Soon hunters of big game had reached the Great Plains.
In the past several years, however, new archaeological finds along the Pacific coast of North and South America have thrown this theory into question. [C] The most spectacular find, at Monte Verde in southern Chile, produced striking evidence of tool making, house building, rock painting, and human footprints conservatively dated at 12,500 years ago, long before the highway had been cleared of ice. [D] Many archaeologists now believe that migrants moved South in boats along a coastal route rather than overland. These people were probably gatherers and fishers rather than hunters of big game.
There were two later migrations into North America. About 5,000 B.C.E., the Athapascan or Na-Dene people began to settle the forests in the northwestern area of the continent. Eventually, Athapascan speakers, the ancestors of the Navajos and Apaches, migrated across the Great Plains to the Southwest. The final migration began about 3,000 B.C.E after Beringia had been submerged, when maritime hunting people crossed the Bering Straits in small boats. The Inuits (also known as the Eskimos) colonized the polar coasts of the Arctic, the Yupiks the coast of southwestern Alaska, and the Aleuts the Aleutian Islands. While scientists debate the timing and mapping of these migrations, many Indian people hold to oral traditions that include a long journey from a distant place of origin to a new homeland.
Question 1
The word “distinctive” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- new
- simple
- particular
- different
Question 2
According to the second paragraph, why did Stone Age tribes begin to migrate into Beringia?
- To hunt for animals in the area
- To intermarry with tribes living there
- To trade with tribes that made losses
- To capture domesticated dogs
Question 3
The phrase “Accompanied by” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- found with
- detoured with
- threatened by
- joined by
Question 4
The word “which” in the third paragraph refers to ________.
- evolution
- migrations
- geneticists
- population
Question 5
Why does the author mention blood types in the third paragraph?
- Blood types offered proof that the migration had come from Scandinavia.
- Comparisons of blood types in Asia and North America established the date of migration.
- The presence of type B in Native Americans was evidence of the migration.
- The blood typing was similar to data from both Japan and Scandinavia.
Question 6
How did groups migrate into the Great Plains?
- By following a mountain trail
- By walking on a corridor covered with ice
- By using the path that big game had made
- By detouring around a huge ice sheet
Question 7
The word “Eventually” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- In this way
- Nevertheless
- Without doubt
- In the end
Question 8
Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted statement in the last paragraph?
- Beringia sank after the last people had crossed the straits in their boats about 3000 B.C.E.
- About 3.000 B.C.E., the final migration of people in small boats across Beringia had ended.
- Beringia was under water when the last people crossed the straits in boats about 3.000 B.C.E.
- About 3.000 B.C.E., Beringia was flooded, preventing the last people from migrating in small boats.
Question 9
According to the last paragraph, all of the following are true about the later migrations EXCEPT ________.
- The Athapascans traveled into the Southwest United States
- The Eskimos established homes in the Arctic polar region
- The Yupiks established settlements on the Great Plains
- The Aleuts migrated in small boats to settle coastal islands
Question 10
Look at the four squares [...] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage. Newly excavated early human sites in Washington State, California, and Peru have been radiocarbon dated to be 11,000 to 12,000 years old. Where would the sentence best fit?
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
PASSAGE 2 QUESTIONS 11 - 20
One of the primary ways of approaching the Greek theatre is through archeology, the systematic study of material remains such as architecture, inscriptions, sculpture, vase painting, and other forms of decorative art. [A] Serious on-site excavations began in Greece around 1870, but W. Dorpfeld did not begin the first extensive study of the Theatre of Dionysus until 1886. [B] Since that time, more than 167 other Greek theatres have been identified and many of them have been excavated. [C] Nevertheless, they still do not permit us to describe the precise appearance of the skene (illustrations printed in books are conjectural reconstructions), since many pieces are irrevocably lost because the buildings in later periods became sources of stone for other projects and what remains is usually broken and scattered. [D] That most of the buildings were remodeled many times has created great problems for those seeking to date both the parts and the successive versions. Despite these drawbacks, archeology provides the most concrete evidence we have about the theatre structures of ancient Greece. But, if they have told us much, archeologists have not completed their work, and many sites have scarcely been touched.
Perhaps the most controversial use of archeological evidence in theatre history is vase paintings, thousands of which have survived from ancient Greece. (Most of those used by theatre scholars are reproduced in Margarete Bieber’s The History of the Greek and Roman Theatre.) Depicting scenes from mythology and daily life, the vases are the most graphic pictorial evidence we have. But they are also easy to misinterpret. Some scholars have considered any vase that depicts a subject treated in a surviving drama or any scene showing masks, flute players, or ceremonials to be valid evidence of theatrical practice. This is a highly questionable assumption, since the Greeks made widespread use of masks, dances, and music outside the theatre and since the myths on which dramatists drew were known to everyone, including vase painters, who might well depict the same subjects as dramatists without being indebted to them. Those vases showing scenes unquestionably theatrical are few in number.
Written evidence about ancient Greek theatre is often treated as less reliable than archeological evidence because most written accounts are separated so far in time from the events they describe and because they provide no information about their own sources. Of the written evidence, the surviving plays are usually treated as the most reliable. But the oldest surviving manuscripts of Greek plays date from around the tenth century, C.E., some 1,500 years after they were first performed. Since printing did not exist during this time span, copies of plays had to be made by hand, and therefore the possibility of textual errors creeping in was magnified. Nevertheless, the scripts offer us our readiest access to the cultural and theatrical conditions out of which they came. But these scripts, like other kinds of evidence, are subject to varying interpretations. Certainly performances embodied a male perspective, for example, since the plays were written, selected, staged, and acted by men. Yet the existing plays feature numerous choruses of women and many feature strong female characters. Because these characters often seem victims of their own powerlessness and appear to be governed, especially in the comedies, by sexual desire, some critics have seen these plays as rationalizations by the male-dominated culture for keeping women segregated and cloistered. Other critics, however, have seen in these same plays an attempt by male authors to force their male audiences to examine and call into question this segregation and cloistering of Athenian women.
By far the majority of written references to Greek theatre date from several hundred years after the events they report. The writers seldom mention their sources of evidence, and thus we do not know what credence to give them. In the absence of material nearer in time to the events, however, historians have used the accounts and have been grateful to have them. Overall, historical treatment of the Greek theatre is something like assembling a jigsaw puzzle from which many pieces are missing: historians arrange what they have and imagine (with the aid of the remaining evidence and logic) what has been lost. As a result, though the broad outlines of Greek theatre history are reasonably clear, many of the details remain open to doubt.
Question 11
According to the first paragraph, why is it impossible to identify the time period for theatres in Greece?
- It is confusing because stones from early sites were used to build later structures.
- There are too few sites that have been excavated and very little data collected about them.
- The archeologists from earlier periods were not careful, and many artifacts were broken.
- Because it is very difficult to date the concrete that was used in construction during early periods.
Question 12
What can be inferred from the first paragraph about the skene in theatre history?
- Drawings in books are the only accurate visual records.
- Archaeologists have excavated a large number of them.
- It was not identified or studied until the early 1800s.
- Not enough evidence is available to make a precise model.
Question 13
The word “primary” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- important
- reliable
- unusual
- accepted
Question 14
In the second paragraph, the author explains that all vases with paintings of masks or musicians may not be evidence of theatrical subjects by ________.
- identifying some of the vases as reproductions that were painted years after the originals
- casting doubt on the qualifications of the scholars who produced the vases as evidence
- arguing that the subjects could have been used by artists without reference to a drama
- pointing out that there are very few vases that have survived from the time of early dramas
Question 15
In the third paragraph, the author states that female characters in Greek theatre ________.
- had no featured parts in plays
- frequently played the part of victims
- were mostly ignored by critics
- did not participate in the chorus
Question 16
According to the third paragraph, scripts of plays may not be accurate because ________.
- copies by hand may contain many errors
- the sources cited are not well known
- they are written in very old language
- the printing is difficult to read
Question 17
The word “them” in the fourth paragraph refers to ________.
- events
- writers
- sources
- references
Question 18
Why does the author mention a jigsaw puzzle in the fourth paragraph?
- To compare the written references for plays to the paintings on vases
- To justify using accounts and records that historians have located
- To introduce the topic for the next reading passage in the textbook
- To demonstrate the difficulty in drawing conclusions from partial evidence
Question 19
Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the author’s opinion about vase paintings?
- Evidence from written documents is older than evidence from vase paintings.
- There is disagreement among scholars regarding vase paintings.
- The sources for vase paintings are clear because of the images on them.
- The details in vase paintings are not obvious because of their age.
Question 20
Look at the four squares [...] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage. These excavations have revealed much that was previously unknown, especially about the dimensions and layout of theatres. Where would the sentence best fit?
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy tập trung vào việc đọc và nắm bắt ý chính của từng đoạn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc và phân tích thông tin tốt. Hãy luyện tập thêm các dạng câu hỏi suy luận để nâng cao điểm số.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục thử thách bản thân với các bài đọc phức tạp hơn.
Listen to the audio and answer questions 1-35.
LISTENING
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording. There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only. Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
PART 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 8
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D.
1. What is the purpose of the message?
- To schedule a checkup
- To delay a meeting
- To confirm an appointment
- To request some files
2. What is being advertised?
- A city tour
- A spa package
- A hotel
- A hospital
3. According to the announcement, what will be built near Berryville?
- A university
- A high school
- A new hospital wing
- An airport terminal
4. Who is this announcement probably for?
- Factory employees
- Office managers
- Safety supervisors
- Hotel workers
5. What is the purpose of the message?
- To make a reservation at a restaurant
- To ask about a new employee
- To invite a co-worker for dinner
- To offer a ride home
6. What is the purpose of the message?
- To make an appointment
- To offer a position
- To cancel an interview
- To confirm receipt of an application
7. What is this message about?
- A new security policy
- The business hours
- An office relocation
- A permanent closure
8. Who is the speaker?
- A new employee
- The founder
- The chairman of the board
- The personnel director
PART 2 QUESTIONS 9 - 20
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation.
9. Why is the woman calling?
- To make an appointment
- To speak with Dr. Johnson
- To confirm an appointment
- To receive some medical advice
10. What is probably true about the man?
- He is a doctor.
- He is very busy these days.
- He is the woman's friend.
- He will be late for the appointment.
11. What does the woman ask the man to do?
- Show up to his appointment a little earlier
- Get more medical insurance
- Wait 10 minutes in the waiting area
- Always arrange his appointments a day early
12. What will the man likely take to his appointment?
- His past medical records
- Some insurance documents
- His appointment book
- An application form
Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation.
13. Who most likely are they?
- Journalists
- Doctors
- Lawyers
- Restaurant owners
14. Who has been mentioning the study to the woman?
- Her patients
- Her mother-in-law
- Her doctor
- Her friends
15. When will they likely attend the conference?
- Today
- Friday
- Saturday
- Sunday
16. Who is going to visit the woman?
- Her friends
- Her husband
- Her mother-in-law
- Her patients
Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation.
17. What are they talking about?
- A newly released product
- The duration of the warranty
- A customer they helped
- A vehicle the man recently fixed
18. According to the man, what was the customer most satisfied with?
- The low cost of the repair work
- The free service they provided
- The competitive price of their products
- The length of the warranty period
19. What do the speakers feel makes customers happy?
- The low price
- The great service
- The free gifts
- The store hours
20. What is true about the customer?
- He is a loyal one.
- He thought the warranty had expired.
- He will definitely come back to the store.
- He will recommend the store to his friend.
PART 3 QUESTIONS 21 - 35
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks, lectures or conversations. The talks, lectures or conversations will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk, lecture or conversation. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following conversation.
21. Why is the woman visiting this office?
- She wants to be a science major.
- She wants to learn about politics.
- She is interested in registering for a course.
- She is interested in Political Science.
22. Why are there few people in the honors program?
- It is not considered a prestigious program.
- The requirements are difficult to meet.
- No one likes the economics requirement.
- It is an unpopular program.
23. What subject is NOT included, if the woman chooses Political Science?
- Political Science 1
- Political Science 2
- Writing seminar
- Economics
24. Which is one of the requirements if the woman chooses International Relation program?
- Students have to maintain over a “B” average in all required courses.
- Students have to study Economics and a second History credit.
- Students need to be realistic in their expectations.
- Students have to take Economics exams.
25. What is NOT a reason for the Political Science Department's elaborate registration process?
- To make students think carefully about what courses they will take
- To have a similar system with other majors
- To make students have a planned program
- To ensure students have realistic expectations
Questions 26 to 30 refer to the following conversation.
26. What happened to the debate club meeting?
- They painted instead of debating.
- The club was disbanded.
- The meeting was moved to another room.
- The meeting was postponed.
27. Why couldn't the man receive the email?
- He was too busy with his classes.
- He was in a meeting.
- His computer has been out of order.
- His friend forgot to tell him.
28. What is going to happen with the debate club's meeting room?
- It is going to be demolished.
- It is going to be sold.
- It is going to be repainted.
- It is going to be closed.
29. What is true about the debate club's meeting room?
- It is too small for the group.
- It is called “Turner Auditorium”.
- It will soon be enlarged to accommodate everyone.
- It is the most run-down room in the student building.
30. What can be inferred about the man?
- He does not enjoy the debate club.
- He is not taking many classes.
- He is a weak debater.
- He is not ready for his debate yet.
Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following professor's talk.
31. What is the professor mainly talking about?
- The science of space travel
- Scientific problems in Star Wars
- The erroneous science in science fiction
- Why science fiction is bad literature
32. According to the lecture, what is wrong with space travel in most science fiction?
- There are no aliens in outer space.
- There is no way to go faster than light speed.
- There are many other stars and galaxies.
- There is nowhere to go in outer space.
33. According to the professor, how long does it take to travel to the closest star to Earth?
- Three light years
- One hundred light years
- Hundreds light years
- A million light years
34. What does the professor NOT say about the movie 2001: A Space Odyssey?
- It is exceptionally good.
- It portrays gravity correctly.
- It does not have faster-than-light travel.
- It does not depict sound in space.
35. What can be inferred about science fiction?
- Many people do not like watching science fiction.
- It is costly to make science fiction.
- Science fiction is not meant to teach us about science.
- The film Space Odyssey is a famous science fiction film.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Dưới B1: Bạn cần củng cố thêm kỹ năng nghe hiểu cơ bản. Hãy tập trung nghe các đoạn hội thoại và thông báo ngắn, đơn giản để làm quen với phát âm và từ vựng thông dụng.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Đạt B1 - B2: Khá tốt! Bạn có thể nghe hiểu các ý chính trong các cuộc hội thoại và bài giảng quen thuộc. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy luyện tập nghe các bài nói dài và phức tạp hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Đạt C1: Xuất sắc! Kỹ năng nghe của bạn rất tốt, có thể hiểu được các bài nói dài ngay cả khi chúng không có cấu trúc rõ ràng và các mối quan hệ không được diễn đạt tường minh.
READING
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of each question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Time allowance: You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 10
Mount Rushmore is a well-known monument in the Black Hills of South Dakota that features the countenances of four United States presidents: Washington, Jefferson, Roosevelt, and Lincoln. What is not so well known is that the process of creating this national treasure was not exactly an uneventful one.
Mount Rushmore was the project of the visionary sculptor John Gutzon de la Mothe Borglum, who was born in Idaho but studied sculpture in Paris in his youth and befriended the famous French sculptor Auguste Rodin. In 1927, Borglum was granted a commission by the federal government to create the sculpture on Mount Rushmore. Although he was nearly sixty years old when he started, he was undaunted by the enormity of the project and the obstacles that it engendered. He optimistically asserted that the project would be completed within five years, not caring to recognize the potential problems that such a massive project would involve, the problems of dealing with financing with government bureaucracy, and with Mother Nature herself. An example of what Mother Nature had to throw at the project was the fissure, or large crack, that developed in the granite where Jefferson was being carved. Jefferson had to be moved to the other side of Washington, next to Roosevelt because of the break in the stone. The work that had been started on the first Jefferson had to be dynamited away.
Mount Rushmore was not completed within the five years predicted by Borglum and was in fact not actually completed within Borglum's lifetime, although it was almost finished. Borglum died on March 6, 1941, at the age of seventy-four, after fourteen years of work on the project. His son, Lincoln Borglum, who had worked with his father throughout the project, completed the monument within eight months of his father's death.
Question 1
Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
- Mount Rushmore is a famous American monument.
- John Gutzen de la Mothe Borglum created Mount Rushmore.
- Mount Rushmore has sculptures of four United States presidents on it.
- Mount Rushmore was a huge project filled with numerous obstacles.
Question 2
Which of the following best describes the relationship between Borglum and Rodin in Borglum's early years?
- Borglum was far more famous than Rodin as a sculptor.
- Borglum and Rodin were friends.
- Borglum and Rodin were born and raised in the same place.
- Borglum studied about Rodin in Paris.
Question 3
The word “nearly” in the second paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?
- Almost
- Closely
- Over
- Barely
Question 4
Which of the following is NOT true about Borglum?
- He predicted that Mount Rushmore would be finished around 1932.
- Borglum worked on Mount Rushmore for more than a decade.
- Mount Rushmore was finished when Borglum predicted it would be.
- He began Mount Rushmore around the age of sixty.
Question 5
It can be inferred from the passage that Borglum was someone who ________.
- set realistic goals
- was always afraid that bad things were going to happen
- never tried anything too challenging
- expected the best to happen
Question 6
The word “fissure” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- break
- softness
- discoloration
- unevenness
Question 7
Why does the author mention the fact that the carving of Thomas Jefferson was moved?
- It demonstrates Borglum's artistic style.
- It is an example of a problem caused by nature.
- It shows what a perfectionist Borglum was.
- It gives insight into Jefferson's character.
Question 8
The pronoun “it” in the third paragraph refers to which of the following?
- Mount Rushmore
- The first Jefferson
- Fourteen years of work
- Borglum's lifetime
Question 9
Which of the following is closest in meaning to the expression “within eight months of his father's death”?
- Less than eight months before his father's death
- Less than eight months after his father's death
- More than eight months after his father's death
- More than eight months before his father's death
Question 10
This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on ________.
- Management
- Geography
- Art history
- Government
PASSAGE 2 QUESTIONS 11 - 20
Narcolepsy is a disease characterized by malfunctioning sleep mechanics. It can consist of a sudden and uncontrollable bout of sleep during daylight hours and disturbed sleep during nighttime hours. It occurs more often in men than in women, and it commonly makes its appearance during adolescence or young adulthood. At least a half million Americans are believed to be affected by narcolepsy.
Narcolepsy can take a number of forms during daylight hours. One common symptom of the disease during daytime hours is a sudden attack of REM (rapid-eye movement) sleep during normal waking hours. This occurs in some people hundreds of times in a single day, while others only have rare occurrences. During a sleep attack, narcoleptics may experience automatic behavior; even though asleep, they may continue automatically performing the activity they were involved in prior to falling asleep. They may, for example, continue walking, or driving, or stirring a pot until the activity is interrupted by external forces. Others experience cataplexy during daytime hours; cataplexy involves a sudden loss of muscle tone that may cause the head to droop or the knees to wobble in minor attacks or a total collapse in more serious attacks. Cataplexy seems to occur most often in conjunction with intense emotion or excitement.
During sleep hours, narcolepsy can also manifest itself in a variety of ways. During the transitional phase that precedes the onset of sleep, it is common for hallucinations to occur. These hallucinations, known as hypnagogic phenomena, consist of realistic perceptions of sights and sounds during the semi-conscious state between wakefulness and sleep. Narcoleptics may also suffer from night wakening during sleep, resulting in extremely fragmented and restless sleep. Then, upon waking, a narcoleptic may experience sleep paralysis, the inability to move, perhaps for several minutes, immediately after waking.
Question 11
According to the passage, narcolepsy is a ________.
- syndrome
- symptom
- disease
- disorder
Question 12
The word “malfunctioning” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- regularly waking
- improperly working
- harshly interpreting
- incorrectly classifying
Question 13
At which of the following ages would a person be most likely to develop narcolepsy?
- 10
- 20
- 30
- 40
Question 14
Approximately how many narcoleptics are there in the United States?
- Fewer than 500,000
- More than 500,000
- Fewer than 1,500,000
- More than 1,500,000
Question 15
The word “bout” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- period
- illness
- lack
- symptom
Question 16
Which of the following would be most likely to occur during daily activities?
- Hallucinations
- Automatic behavior
- Sleep paralysis
- Night wakening
Question 17
Which of the following involves a complete collapse?
- Cataplexy
- Automatic behavior
- REM sleep
- Hallucinations
Question 18
The word “resulting in” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- bringing on
- making up
- leading to
- getting to
Question 19
When would hypnagogic phenomena most likely occur?
- Soon after waking
- Just after going to bed
- After getting up
- In the middle of the night
Question 20
Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
- Cure for Narcolepsy
- A Good Night's Sleep
- Hallucinations during Sleep
- An Unusual Sleep Disturbance
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần ôn tập thêm: Bạn cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng đọc hiểu cơ bản như tìm ý chính và xác định thông tin chi tiết.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc hiểu tương đối. Hãy luyện tập thêm để tăng tốc độ và độ chính xác khi làm bài.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Rất tốt: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất vững vàng. Hãy tiếp tục phát huy nhé!
PASSAGE 3 QUESTIONS 1-10
EARLY CINEMA
The cinema did not emerge as a form of mass consumption until its technology evolved from the initial “peepshow” format to the point where images were projected on a screen in a darkened theater. In the peepshow format, a film was viewed through a small opening in a machine that was created for that purpose. Thomas Edison's peepshow device, the Kinetoscope, was introduced to the public in 1894. It was designed for use in Kinetoscope parlors, or arcades, which contained only a few individual machines and permitted only one customer to view a short, 50-foot film at any one time. The first Kinetoscope parlors contained five machines. For the price of 25 cents (or 5 cents per machine), customers moved from machine to machine to watch five different films (or, in the case of famous prizefights, successive rounds of a single fight).
These Kinetoscope arcades were modeled on phonograph parlors, which had proven successful for Edison several years earlier. In the phonograph parlors, customers listened to recordings through individual ear tubes, moving from one machine to the next to hear different recorded speeches or pieces of music. The Kinetoscope parlors functioned in a similar way. Edison was more interested in the sale of Kinetoscopes (for roughly $1,000 a piece) to these parlors than in the films that would be run in them (which cost approximately $10 to $15 each). He refused to develop projection technology, reasoning that if he made and sold projectors, then exhibitors would purchase only one machine - a projector - from him instead of several.
[A] Exhibitors, however, wanted to maximize their profits, which they could do more readily by projecting a handful of films to hundreds of customers at a time (rather than one at a time) and by charging 25 to 50 cents admission. [B] About a year after the opening of the first Kinetoscope parlor in 1894, showmen such as Louis and Auguste Lumière, Thomas Armat and Charles Francis Jenkins, and Orville and Woodville Latham (with the assistance of Edison’s former assistant, William Dickson) perfected projection devices. [C] These early projection devices were used in vaudeville theaters, legitimate theaters, local town halls, makeshift storefront theaters, fairgrounds, and amusement parks to show films to a mass audience. [D]
With the advent of projection in 1895-1896, motion pictures became the ultimate form of mass consumption. Previously, large audiences had viewed spectacles at the theater, where vaudeville, popular dramas, musical and minstrel shows, classical plays, lectures, and slide-and-lantern shows had been presented to several hundred spectators at a time. But the movies differed significantly from other forms of entertainment, which depended on either live performance or (in the case of the slide-and-lantern shows) the active involvement of a master of ceremonies who assembled the final program.
Although early exhibitors regularly accompanied movies with live acts, the substance of the movies themselves is mass-produced, pre-recorded material that can easily be reproduced by theaters with little or no active participation by the exhibitor. Even though early exhibitors shaped their film programs by mixing films and other entertainments together in whichever way they thought would be most attractive to audiences or by accompanying them with lectures, their creative control remained limited. What audiences came to see was the technological marvel of the movies; the lifelike reproduction of the commonplace motion of trains, of waves striking the shore, and of people walking in the streets; and the magic made possible by trick photography and the manipulation of the camera.
With the advent of projection, the viewer's relationship with the image was no longer private, as it had been with earlier peepshow devices such as the Kinetoscope and the Mutoscope, which was a similar machine that reproduced motion by means of successive images on individual photographic cards instead of on strips of celluloid. It suddenly became public - an experience that the viewer shared with dozens, scores, and even hundreds of others. At the same time, the image that the spectator looked at expanded from the minuscule peepshow dimensions of 1 or 2 inches (in height) to the life-size proportions of 6 or 9 feet.
Question 1
According to the first paragraph, all of the following were true of viewing films in Kinetoscope parlors EXCEPT ________.
- prizefights were the most popular subjects for films
- customers could view one film after another
- one individual at a time viewed a film
- each film was short
Question 2
The author discusses phonograph parlors in paragraph 2 in order to ________.
- describe the model used to design Kinetoscope parlors
- explain Edison's financial success
- contrast their popularity to that of Kinetoscope parlors
- illustrate how much more technologically advanced Kinetoscope parlors were
Question 3
Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the second paragraph?
- Edison did not want to develop projection technology because it limited the number of machines he could sell.
- Edison was more interested in developing a variety of machines than in developing a technology based on only one.
- Edison would not develop projection technology unless exhibitors agreed to purchase more than one projector from him.
- Edison refused to work on projection technology because he did not think exhibitors would replace their projectors with newer machines.
Question 4
The word “readily” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- easily
- frequently
- intelligently
- obviously
Question 5
The word “assistance” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- help
- leadership
- criticism
- approval
Question 6
According to paragraph 4, how did the early movies differ from previous spectacles that were presented to large audiences?
- They were more educational.
- They were viewed by larger audiences.
- They were a more expensive form of entertainment.
- They did not require live entertainers.
Question 7
According to paragraph 5, what role did early exhibitors play in the presentation of movies in theaters?
- They often took part in the live-action performances.
- They advised film-makers on appropriate movie content.
- They decided how to combine various components of the film program.
- They produced and prerecorded the material that was shown in the theaters.
Question 8
The word “It” in the last paragraph refers to ________.
- the viewer's relationship with the image
- the advent of projection
- a similar machine
- celluloid
Question 9
According to paragraph 6, the images seen by viewers in the earlier peepshows, compared to the images projected on the screen, were relatively ________.
- small in size
- unfocused
- inexpensive to create
- limited in subject matter
Question 10
Look at the four squares [...] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage. "When this widespread use of projection technology began to hurt his Kinetoscope business, Edison acquired a projector developed by Armat and introduced it as “Edison’s latest marvel, the Vitascope.”" Where would the sentence best fit?
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
PASSAGE 4 QUESTIONS 11 - 20
DESERT FORMATION
The deserts, which already occupy approximately a fourth of the Earth’s land surface, have in recent decades been increasing at an alarming pace. The expansion of desert-like conditions into areas where they did not previously exist is called desertification. It has been estimated that an additional one-fourth of the Earth’s land surface is threatened by this process.
Desertification is accomplished primarily through the loss of stabilizing natural vegetation and the subsequent accelerated erosion of the soil by wind and water. In some cases, the loose soil is blown completely away, leaving a stony surface. In other cases, the finer particles may be removed, while the sand-sized particles are accumulated to form mobile hills or ridges of sand.
Even in the areas that retain a soil cover, the reduction of vegetation typically results in the loss of the soil’s ability to absorb substantial quantities of water. The impact of raindrops on the loose soil tends to transfer fine clay particles into the tiniest soil spaces, sealing them and producing a surface that allows very little water penetration. Water absorption is greatly reduced, consequently runoff is increased, resulting in accelerated erosion rates. The gradual drying of the soil caused by its diminished ability to absorb water results in the further loss of vegetation, so that a cycle of progressive surface deterioration is established.
In some regions, the increase in desert areas is occurring largely as the result of a trend toward drier climatic conditions. Continued gradual global warming has produced an increase in aridity for some areas over the past few thousand years. The process may be accelerated in subsequent decades if global warming resulting from air pollution seriously increases.
There is little doubt, however, that desertification in most areas results primarily from human activities rather than natural processes. The semiarid lands bordering the deserts exist in a delicate ecological balance and are limited in their potential to adjust to increased environmental pressures. Expanding populations are subjecting the land to increased pressures to provide them with food and fuel. In wet periods, the land may be able to respond to these stresses. During the dry periods that are common phenomena along the desert margins, though, the pressure on the land is often far in excess of its diminished capacity, and desertification results.
Four specific activities have been identified as major contributors to the desertification processes: over-cultivation, overgrazing, firewood gathering, and over-irrigation. The cultivation of crops has expanded into progressively drier regions as population densities have grown. These regions are especially likely to have periods of severe dryness, so that crop failures are common. Since the raising of most crops necessitates the prior removal of the natural vegetation, crop failures leave extensive tracts of land devoid of a plant cover and susceptible to wind and water erosion.
The raising of livestock is a major economic activity in semiarid lands, where grasses are generally the dominant type of natural vegetation. The consequences of an excessive number of livestock grazing in an area are the reduction of the vegetation cover and the trampling and pulverization of the soil. This is usually followed by the drying of the soil and accelerated erosion.
Firewood is the chief fuel used for cooking and heating in many countries. The increased pressures of expanding populations have led to the removal of woody plants so that many cities and towns are surrounded by large areas completely lacking in trees and shrubs. The increasing use of dried animal waste as a substitute fuel has also hurt the soil because this valuable soil conditioner and source of plant nutrients is no longer being returned to the land.
The final major human cause of desertification is soil salinization resulting from over-irrigation. Excess water from irrigation sinks down into the water table. If no drainage system exists, the water table rises, bringing dissolved salts to the surface. The water evaporates and the salts are left behind, creating a white crustal layer that prevents air and water from reaching the underlying soil.
The extreme seriousness of desertification results from the vast areas of land and the tremendous numbers of people affected, as well as from the great difficulty of reversing or even slowing the process. Once the soil has been removed by erosion, only the passage of centuries or millennia will enable new soil to form. In areas where considerable soil still remains, though, a rigorously enforced program of land protection and cover-crop planting may make it possible to reverse the present deterioration of the surface.
Question 11
The word “threatened” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- restricted
- endangered
- prevented
- rejected
Question 12
According to paragraph 3, the loss of natural vegetation has which of the following consequences for soil?
- Reduced water absorption
- Increased numbers of spaces in the soil
- Increased stony content
- Reduced water runoff
Question 13
The word “delicate” in the fifth paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- predictable
- fragile
- complex
- valuable
Question 14
According to paragraph 5, in dry periods, border areas have difficulty ________.
- adjusting to stresses created by settlement
- providing water for irrigating crops
- retaining their fertility after desertification
- attracting populations in search of food and fuel
Question 15
The word “progressively” in the sixth paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- impressively
- openly
- objectively
- increasingly
Question 16
According to paragraph 6, which of the following is often associated with raising crops?
- failure of crops
- Excessive use of dried animal waste
- Lack of proper irrigation techniques
- Removal of the original vegetation
Question 17
According to paragraph 9, the ground’s absorption of excess water is a factor in desertification because it can ________.
- limit the evaporation of water
- interfere with the irrigation of land
- bring salts to the surface
- require more absorption of air by the soil
Question 18
All of the following are mentioned in the passage as contributing to desertification EXCEPT ________.
- soil erosion
- insufficient irrigation
- global warming
- the raising of livestock
Question 19
Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the last paragraph?
- The spread of deserts is considered a very serious problem that can be solved only if large numbers of people in various countries are involved in the effort.
- Slowing down the process of desertification is difficult because of population growth that has spread over large areas of land.
- Desertification is a significant problem because it is so hard to reverse and affects large areas of land and great numbers of people.
- Desertification is extremely hard to reverse unless the population is reduced in the vast areas affected.
Question 20
As inferred from the passage, which of the following does the author most likely believe about the future of desertification?
- Desertification will continue to increase.
- Desertification will soon occur in all areas of the world.
- Governments will act quickly to control further desertification.
- The factors influencing desertification occur in cycles and will change in the future.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy bắt đầu bằng việc đọc các đoạn văn ngắn và tập trung vào việc tìm ý chính.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc hiểu ổn. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy luyện tập kỹ năng quản lý thời gian và phân tích các câu hỏi phức tạp.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc và phân tích thông tin của bạn rất ấn tượng.
Listen to the audio and answer questions 1-35.
LISTENING
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording. There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only. Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
PART 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 8
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D.
1. What is the purpose of the message?
- To schedule a checkup
- To delay a meeting
- To confirm an appointment
- To request some files
2. What is being advertised?
- A city tour
- A spa package
- A hotel
- A hospital
3. According to the announcement, what will be built near Berryville?
- A university
- A high school
- A new hospital wing
- An airport terminal
4. Who is this announcement probably for?
- Factory employees
- Office managers
- Safety supervisors
- Hotel workers
5. What is the purpose of the message?
- To make a reservation at a restaurant
- To ask about a new employee
- To invite a co-worker for dinner
- To offer a ride home
6. What is the purpose of the message?
- To make an appointment
- To offer a position
- To cancel an interview
- To confirm receipt of an application
7. What is this message about?
- A new security policy
- The business hours
- An office relocation
- A permanent closure
8. Who is the speaker?
- A new employee
- The founder
- The chairman of the board
- The personnel director
PART 2 QUESTIONS 9 - 20
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation.
9. Why is the woman calling?
- To make an appointment
- To speak with Dr. Johnson
- To confirm an appointment
- To receive some medical advice
10. What is probably true about the man?
- He is a doctor.
- He is very busy these days.
- He is the woman's friend.
- He will be late for the appointment.
11. What does the woman ask the man to do?
- Show up to his appointment a little earlier
- Get more medical insurance
- Wait 10 minutes in the waiting area
- Always arrange his appointments a day early
12. What will the man likely take to his appointment?
- His past medical records
- Some insurance documents
- His appointment book
- An application form
Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation.
13. Who most likely are they?
- Journalists
- Doctors
- Lawyers
- Restaurant owners
14. Who has been mentioning the study to the woman?
- Her patients
- Her mother-in-law
- Her doctor
- Her friends
15. When will they likely attend the conference?
- Today
- Friday
- Saturday
- Sunday
16. Who is going to visit the woman?
- Her friends
- Her husband
- Her mother-in-law
- Her patients
Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation.
17. What are they talking about?
- A newly released product
- The duration of the warranty
- A customer they helped
- A vehicle the man recently fixed
18. According to the man, what was the customer most satisfied with?
- The low cost of the repair work
- The free service they provided
- The competitive price of their products
- The length of the warranty period
19. What do the speakers feel makes customers happy?
- The low price
- The great service
- The free gifts
- The store hours
20. What is true about the customer?
- He is a loyal one.
- He thought the warranty had expired.
- He will definitely come back to the store.
- He will recommend the store to his friend.
PART 3 QUESTIONS 21 - 35
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks, lectures or conversations. The talks, lectures or conversations will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk, lecture or conversation. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following conversation.
21. Why is the woman visiting this office?
- She wants to be a science major.
- She wants to learn about politics.
- She is interested in registering for a course.
- She is interested in Political Science.
22. Why are there few people in the honors program?
- It is not considered a prestigious program.
- The requirements are difficult to meet.
- No one likes the economics requirement.
- It is an unpopular program.
23. What subject is NOT included, if the woman chooses Political Science?
- Political Science 1
- Political Science 2
- Writing seminar
- Economics
24. Which is one of the requirements if the woman chooses International Relation program?
- Students have to maintain over a “B” average in all required courses.
- Students have to study Economics and a second History credit.
- Students need to be realistic in their expectations.
- Students have to take Economics exams.
25. What is NOT a reason for the Political Science Department's elaborate registration process?
- To make students think carefully about what courses they will take
- To have a similar system with other majors
- To make students have a planned program
- To ensure students have realistic expectations
Questions 26 to 30 refer to the following conversation.
26. What happened to the debate club meeting?
- They painted instead of debating.
- The club was disbanded.
- The meeting was moved to another room.
- The meeting was postponed.
27. Why couldn't the man receive the email?
- He was too busy with his classes.
- He was in a meeting.
- His computer has been out of order.
- His friend forgot to tell him.
28. What is going to happen with the debate club's meeting room?
- It is going to be demolished.
- It is going to be sold.
- It is going to be repainted.
- It is going to be closed.
29. What is true about the debate club's meeting room?
- It is too small for the group.
- It is called “Turner Auditorium”.
- It will soon be enlarged to accommodate everyone.
- It is the most run-down room in the student building.
30. What can be inferred about the man?
- He does not enjoy the debate club.
- He is not taking many classes.
- He is a weak debater.
- He is not ready for his debate yet.
Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following professor's talk.
31. What is the professor mainly talking about?
- The science of space travel
- Scientific problems in Star Wars
- The erroneous science in science fiction
- Why science fiction is bad literature
32. According to the lecture, what is wrong with space travel in most science fiction?
- There are no aliens in outer space.
- There is no way to go faster than light speed.
- There are many other stars and galaxies.
- There is nowhere to go in outer space.
33. According to the professor, how long does it take to travel to the closest star to Earth?
- Three light years
- One hundred light years
- Hundreds light years
- A million light years
34. What does the professor NOT say about the movie 2001: A Space Odyssey?
- It is exceptionally good.
- It portrays gravity correctly.
- It does not have faster-than-light travel.
- It does not depict sound in space.
35. What can be inferred about science fiction?
- Many people do not like watching science fiction.
- It is costly to make science fiction.
- Science fiction is not meant to teach us about science.
- The film Space Odyssey is a famous science fiction film.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Dưới B1: Bạn cần củng cố thêm kỹ năng nghe hiểu cơ bản. Hãy tập trung nghe các đoạn hội thoại và thông báo ngắn, đơn giản để làm quen với phát âm và từ vựng thông dụng.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Đạt B1 - B2: Khá tốt! Bạn có thể nghe hiểu các ý chính trong các cuộc hội thoại và bài giảng quen thuộc. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy luyện tập nghe các bài nói dài và phức tạp hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Đạt C1: Xuất sắc! Kỹ năng nghe của bạn rất tốt, có thể hiểu được các bài nói dài ngay cả khi chúng không có cấu trúc rõ ràng và các mối quan hệ không được diễn đạt tường minh.
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Time allowance: You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 10
It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year. In January and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant hoot. The female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a body length of twenty-two to twenty-four inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange courtship dance. He bobs. He bows. He ruffles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from limb to limb and makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They share the repast, after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to the beat of an inner drum.
Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground.
The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically settles herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious charges from snow and cold. It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet peeks its way out of the shell. As the young birds feather out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. They clamor for food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season baby crows are taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game birds all fall prey to the hungry family. It is nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food. The parent birds weary of family life by November and drive the young owls away to establish hunting ranges of their own.
Question 1
What is the topic of this passage?
- Raising a family of great horned owls
- Mating rituals of great horned owls
- Nest building of great horned owls
- Habits of young great horned owls
Question 2
The phrase “a resonant hoot” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- an instrument
- a sound
- a movement
- an offering of food
Question 3
It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls ________.
- takes place on the ground
- is an active process
- happens in the fall
- involves the male alone
Question 4
According to the passage, great horned owls ________.
- are discriminate nest builders
- need big nests for their numerous eggs
- may inhabit a previously used nest
- build nests on tree limbs
Question 5
According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl's job?
- To initiate the courtship ritual
- To feed the young
- To sit on the nest
- To build the nest
Question 6
The phrase “precious charges” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
- the eggs
- the nest
- the hawks and crows
- other nesting owls
Question 7
According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT ________.
- other small birds
- insects
- small mammals
- nuts and seeds
Question 8
The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to ________.
- the wise old men
- the adult birds
- the young birds
- the prey
Question 9
What can be inferred from the last paragraph about the adult parents of the young great horned owls?
- They are sorry to see their young leave home.
- They are lazy and careless about feeding the small owlets.
- They probably won’t see their young after November.
- They don’t eat while they are feeding their young.
Question 10
The phrase “weary of” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- tire of
- become sad about
- support
- are attracted to
PASSAGE 2 QUESTIONS 11 - 20
In the early 1800s, to reach the jump-off point for the West, a family from the East of the United States could either buy steamboat passage to Missouri for themselves, their livestock or - as happened more often - simply pile everything into a wagon, hitch up a team, and begin their overland trek right in their front yard.
Along the macadamized roads and turnpikes East of the Missouri River, travel was comparatively fast, camping easy, and supplies plentiful. Then, in one river town or another, the neophyte emigrants would pause to lay in provisions. For outfitting purposes, the town of Independence had been preeminent ever since 1827, but the rising momentum of pioneer emigration had produced some rival jump-off points. Westport and Fort Leavenworth flourished a few miles upriver. St. Joseph had sprung up 55 miles to the northwest; in fact, emigrants who went to Missouri by riverboat could save four days on the trail by staying on the paddle-wheelers to St. Joe before striking overland.
At whatever jump-off point they chose, the emigrants studied guidebooks and directions, asked questions of others as green as themselves, and made their final decisions about outfitting. They had various, sometimes conflicting, options. For example, either pack animals or two-wheel carts or wagons could be used for the overland crossing. A family man usually chose the wagon. It was the costliest and slowest of the three, but it provided space and shelter for children and for a wife who as likely as not was pregnant. Everybody knew that a top-heavy covered wagon might blow over in a prairie wind or be overturned by mountain rocks, that it might mire in river mud or sink to its hubs in desert sand - but maybe if those things happened on this trip, they would happen to someone else. Anyway, most pioneers, with their farm background, were used to wagons.
Question 11
What is the topic of this passage?
- Important river towns
- Getting started on the trip west
- The advantages of traveling by wagon
- Choosing a point of departure
Question 12
All of the following can be inferred from the passage about travel East of the Missouri EXCEPT that it ________.
- was faster than in the West
- was easier than in the West
- took place on good roads
- was usually by steamboat
Question 13
The phrase “jump-off point” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- a bridge across a river
- a point of departure
- a gathering place
- a trading post
Question 14
Which of the cities that served as a jump-off point can be inferred from the passage to be farthest West?
- Independence
- St. Joseph
- Westport
- Fort Leavenworth
Question 15
The word “preeminent” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- oldest
- superior
- most easily reached.
- closest
Question 16
The author implies in the passage that the early emigrants ________.
- knew a lot about travel
- were well stocked with provisions when they left their homes
- left from the same place in Missouri
- preferred wagon travel to other types of travel
Question 17
The word “neophyte” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- eager
- courageous
- prosperous
- inexperienced
Question 18
All of the following were mentioned in the passage as options for modes of transportation from the Missouri River to the West EXCEPT ________.
- a wagon
- a riverboat
- a pack animal
- a two-wheel cart
Question 19
The word “striking” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- hitting
- orienting
- departing
- marking
Question 20
All of the following features of the covered wagon made it unattractive to the emigrants EXCEPT ________.
- speed at which it could travel
- its bulk
- its familiarity and size
- its cost
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng đọc hiểu cơ bản. Hãy luyện tập đọc các đoạn văn ngắn và trả lời câu hỏi để cải thiện.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào các câu hỏi suy luận và tìm ý chính của đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất tốt. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ và thử sức với các bài đọc phức tạp hơn.
PASSAGE 3 QUESTIONS 21 - 30
Alexander the Great commissioned the city of Alexandria to create a Mediterranean stronghold in Egypt to rival Rome and cities in Greece. He died before his idea came to fruition, but his successors built it into one of the greatest cities of the Hellenistic world. The Royal Library of Alexandria has achieved an almost mythical status among scholars of classical studies. As with many ancient topics, scholarship on the matte roften conflicts and relies heavily on hearsay and supposition. We will examine the importance of the library during its heyday and how it operated.
As with many ancient landmarks, there is much debate and controversy over Alexandria’s library, especially regarding its destruction. The tale has been retold by countless historians and attributed to just as many different factions and rulers, not to profile this landmark of education, but as a tool for political slander. It is estimated that there are over 4,000 writings regarding its destruction, yet very little data exists regarding the structure, layout, organization, administration, or whereabouts of the complex. The accuracy of the available information is suspect. However, 20th century scholars have reached some general consensus from the remaining sources.
Most historians come to the conclusion that the original library (also known as the Temple of the Muses) was commissioned by Ptolemy I, Alexander’s key general. More accurately, it was commissioned by the Athenian exile Demetrius of Phaleron under Ptolemy I’s patronage. Traditionally it was attributed to his son Ptolemy II. However, it was later shown that Demetrius was antagonistic toward Ptolemy II and did not survive for much of his reign. Ptolemy II can be seen as responsible for the fruition and completion of the library and museum complex. H.G. Wells asserts that Ptolemy and his son encouraged “a blaze of knowledge and discovery at Alexandria through their funding of the library and other endowments.”
The library itself was not a "library" in modern etymology. In fact, the library was essentially a collection of scholars and scribes encouraged to expand scientific and philosophical wisdom and musings brought about because of the ambition and drive of Ptolemy I. It was not the first institution of its type, developing about a half-century after Plato’s Academy and Aristotle’s Lyceum. About 30-50 scholars were probably permanently housed there, fed, and funded, first by the royal family, and later, according to an early Roman scroll, by public money. It served a religious, as well as an intellectual, function and it was the centerpiece of a so-called cult of the muses, governed by a priest.
[A] The library’s output was created through observation and deduction in math, medicine, astronomy, and geometry, the editing of texts and manuscripts, and debating various advances in Western knowledge. [B] For two or three generations, the scientific output at Alexandria was considerably good. Its achievements included the introduction of the first steam engine, the first star map, and an astoundingly accurate estimate of the Earth’s diameter. [C] Famous scholars employed there included Euclid, Eratosthenes, Apollonius, and Hero. [D]
The library may have consisted of a group of buildings, including lecture halls, study rooms, dining rooms, gardens, and an astronomical observatory. In organization of the library, it is believed that, in the time of Ptolemy II, the scrolls were haphazardly stored and grouped by general category. From the time of Callimachus onwards, they used an early iteration of a subject catalog. Subject divisions outlined by Callimachus included mathematics, medicine, astronomy, and geometry, as well as philology. At its peak, it is estimated about 600,000 scrolls were held within its walls, although that is likely an overstatement.
The Ptolemys achieved their goal of creating the largest collection of its kind by varied and often forceful means. At the time of its founding, Greek libraries were usually collections of manuscripts by private individuals. Ptolemy had a vision to collect all accepted literature on all matters scientific, philosophical and spiritual. The a library tried to get copies of all known books and would send agents far and wide to acquire them. Ptolemy III wrote a letter “to all the world’s sovereigns” asking to borrow their books. On more than a few occasions, scribes made copies and kept the originals. Supposedly, all ships entering Alexandria’s harbor were searched for books to copy.
The Royal Library of Alexandria was created at an ideal time and place in world history. It was able to combine the deductive techniques of Greek thought toward the learning of other world cultures. As such, it holds a legendary position among historians as an important center of classical knowledge. Although much of the story has been buried with time and conflict, the importance and significance of its contributions are CLEAR.
Question 1
All of the following sentences express important ideas in the passage EXCEPT ________.
- The library was essentially a collection of scholars and scribes encouraged to expand scientific and philosophical wisdom.
- In the time of Callimachus, the scrolls were haphazardly stored and grouped by general category.
- It is estimated that there were over 4,000 writings about its destruction, yet very little evidence exists.
- The library tried to get copies of all known books and would employ several methods of acquiring them.
Question 2
The word “factions” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- sections
- insubordinates
- cliques
- conspiracies
Question 3
The word “its” in the second paragraph refers to ________.
- data
- education
- the Royal Library of Alexandria
- destruction
Question 4
The author mentions “its destruction” in the second paragraph in order to ________.
- introduce the idea that the destruction was caused by natural disaster
- illustrate that there are so many arguments surrounding its demise and disappearance
- indicate the difference between its destruction and other libraries destruction
- highlight the difference between the library and other historic sites
Question 5
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the fourth paragraph?
- Commissioned by Ptolemy I, the Royal Library was a place where people who wanted to learn gathered to study and record their philosophies.
- The library was a large building where students gathered to research and study.
- Philosophers often visited the library to further their studies.
- Many people gathered at the Royal Library in Alexandria in order to socialize with their friends.
Question 6
According to paragraph 6, what was true about the early iteration of a subject catalog?
- All the books were grouped within two general categories.
- The books were chosen for their innovation, thematic impact, and popular appeal.
- The librarians organized the collection of books systematically.
- The library achieved an astonishing collection and many developments.
Question 7
The word “overstatement” in the sixth paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- estimation
- falsehood
- exaggeration
- presumption
Question 8
Which of the following can be inferred about the Royal Library from the passage?
- Most of the manuscripts from the library are preserved in modern museums.
- Several writings from the library have been scanned and can be viewed on the internet.
- Little of the manuscripts contained in the library are in existence today.
- The library is currently being reconstructed.
Question 9
According to historians, all of the following were true about the Royal Library of Alexandria EXCEPT ________.
- It probably contained over 600,000 writings.
- Little is known of its exact location.
- It was responsible for the first star map.
- It was the largest and most magnificent library in history.
Question 10
Look at the four squares [A], [B], [C], [D] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage. It remained an important intellectual center for over 500 years until numerous fires and other problems eroded its significance. Where would the sentence best fit?
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
PASSAGE 4 QUESTIONS 31 - 40
The Pacific Ocean contains approximately 20,000 to 30,000 islands. Islands, excluding Australia, that are South of the Tropic of Cancer are grouped into three divisions: Melanesia, Micronesia, and Polynesia.
Melanesia includes the nation of Papua New Guinea, provinces of Indonesia, and the Solomon Islands. Micronesia means ‘small islands’, most of which are North of the equator. Polynesia, which means ‘many islands’, includes the Hawaiian Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Easter Island, among others. Migrants from South East Asian cities were the first settlers. The next wave of migrants populated New Guinea, gradually spreading to Fiji. The last of the Pacific islands to be settled was Polynesia. Hawaii was discovered sometime between the 7th and 13th centuries.
Bats were the only mammals on these islands until the arrival of the first humans. Birds adapted to environmental niches, like grazers and insectivores. Due to the cool and humid location, New Zealand lost plants and animals, like the giant flightless bird, that were intolerant of its climate. However, the extinction coincided with the arrival of the Melanesians, so it was probably caused by hunting and fires. Adding to that, mining and a natural drought destroyed a majority of the natural habitat. This was repeated on Easter Island, where early settlers wiped out 22 species of sea birds and land birds. By the time the Europeans had arrived, most of the plant life was extinct and nearly 30% of the forests were cleared.
The invasion of New Zealand by the Europeans resulted in a complete transformation of the island, importing over 3,198 species of plants and animals and filling most of the wetlands. Australia also imported animals and plants from many Pacific island countries. Sheep, pigs, goats, and foxes were brought to Australia, which further disrupted the native ecosystems. Many plants and animals are presently endangered.
The plants and animals that inhabit Pacific islands are found nowhere else on Earth. They are often adapted to specific habitats and live on a small part of a few islands. New Caledonia is an island that has been isolated from other lands for over 80 million years. 66 percent of the plant life there evolved on the island. Numerous plant species, unique in the world, are on a small area of one mountain and are represented by only a few specimens.
This varied genetic heritage is of such scientific importance that New Caledonia has been listed as one of the ten hot spots where the primary forest is in danger of extinction. It also boasts 68 species of bird, the most diverse bird life in the Southwest Pacific.
During the first Ice Age, ocean levels were much lower than they are at present. Levels in the shallow seas, now separating Asia from North America near the present-day Bering strait, dropped approximately 300 feet, creating 1,000 miles of grassland plain. Called the ‘Bering Land Bridge,’ this linked Asia and North America together. The Bering Sea has a long history of stable animal populations, despite the harsh environments, which sustain human life. Lemmings, ox, and mammoths all made the journey across the land bridge. Although mammoths have been extinct for quite a while now, the other two have remained.
Pacific walruses inhabit shallow waters of the Bering Sea during winter. They congregate to feed on clams, their principal food. [A] This type of feeding releases nutrients into the water, providing food for starfish and increasing the roughness of the sea floor. [B] Actual impact of the ecology of bottom communities is unknown, but walruses, along with other animals like beavers and sea otters, have huge effects on the biological communities they occupy. [C] Animals such as seals, bowhead whales, and walruses are important for the subsistence of their community. [D]
Pacific islands have the same pollution and overfishing problems as most countries. Destructive forms of fishing in Asian nations have taken their toll on marine animals such as birds and tuna. Many of these nations have now entered joint venture agreements to enable them to develop their marine resources more efficiently.
Question 11
The word “populated” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- inhabited
- exiled
- traveled
- governed
Question 12
The word “it” in the third paragraph refers to ________.
- arrival
- extinction
- climate
- hunting
Question 13
Why does the author mention “The invasion of New Zealand by the Europeans” in the fourth paragraph?
- To demonstrate its destructive effect on local ecosystems
- To explain how many of New Zealand’s species came into being
- To show the lack of responsibility that early settlers had toward new places
- To draw a comparison to the way Australia expanded in the Pacific
Question 14
According to paragraph 5, what is unique about the Pacific Islands?
- They have a long history of traditional management approaches for marine resources.
- They are home to rare and unique animals.
- They are made up of 66% plant life.
- They have all been damaged by European settlers.
Question 15
The word “specimens” in the fifth paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- genres
- features
- examples
- images
Question 16
According to paragraph 7, how has the Bering Sea aided life forms in the past?
- By providing creatures with plentiful food
- By being home to a diverse and varied ecosystem
- By allowing transit across the great ice shelves in the Americas
- By keeping creatures cool and comfortable in the ice
Question 17
According to the passage, which of the following is true of walruses?
- They protect the surrounding ecosystem by preventing overfishing.
- Their unique feeding habits enrich the ecosystem with nutrients.
- They are solitary animals which hunt and eat by themselves.
- They are usually found living in the deepest regions of the Bering Sea.
Question 18
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 8?
- Although ecological impacts are not known, many species are largely dependent on animals occupying a sub-level.
- The true biological diversity of all the walruses is revealed only below the species level.
- Beavers and otters are strongly related to the walrus family because there is a clear cause-effect relationship.
- There is a great deal that still needs to be learned about biological communities and ecosystems.
Question 19
According to paragraph 9, what measures have been taken to protect sea creatures?
- Protection agencies have begun guarding areas known for high fish populations.
- Destructive fishing methods such as drag-nets have been outlawed.
- Agreements have been made to ensure that marine resources are used carefully.
- Restrictions have been placed on amounts permitted to be fished in certain areas.
Question 20
Look at the four squares [A], [B], [C], [D] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage. Walruses blow the clams loose with a jet of water, then suck them from their shells. Where would the sentence best fit?
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng nhiều hơn: Bạn cần rèn luyện thêm kỹ năng đọc hiểu và xác định ý chính của đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc hiểu ổn. Hãy chú ý hơn đến các câu hỏi yêu cầu suy luận và từ vựng.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất tốt. Bạn đã nắm vững các yêu cầu của bài thi.
LISTENING
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording. There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only. Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
PART 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 8
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.
1. Who is probably talking on the phone?
- A hotel receptionist
- A receptionist at the dentist's
- A travel agent
- A real estate agent
2. Why has the meeting been relocated?
- Because a building is being renovated
- Because the North Tower is being painted
- Because the South Tower is sold
- Because the North Tower is more spacious
3. What is the main cause of decreased domestic sales?
- A weak economy
- Competition
- Retail clothing sector
- Domestic economy
4. What should the listeners do before they skate?
- Get permission from the safety coordinator
- Pay the proper safety equipment
- Pay a nominal fee
- Have membership cards
5. What profession does the speaker work in?
- Sports therapy
- Sports broadcasting
- Physical training
- Sports fashion
6. What is the purpose of Ricardo's visit?
- To train staff members
- To oversee a project
- To learn business methods
- To see a client
7. What kind of business would be making this announcement?
- A gas station
- A hotel
- A restaurant
- A store
8. Why has confidence increased?
- Because of increased investment
- Because of low inflation
- Because of higher production
- Because of government data
PART 2 QUESTIONS 9 - 20
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation.
9. What is the problem?
- The woman does not know how to get to the office.
- The copy machine is not working properly
- The man is late for his appointment.
- The woman can't go to the office today.
10. Who most likely is the man?
- An auto mechanic
- A photocopier technician
- A new assistant
- A coffee shop owner
11. What does the man ask the woman to do?
- To have a clinic check-up
- To turn off the machine
- To check the inside paper jam
- To call another technician
12. When will the man most likely get to the woman's office?
- In the morning
- During lunch
- In the afternoon
- In the evening
Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation.
13. What is the woman's problem?
- She lost a library book.
- She does not know where Germany is.
- The library does not have a book she needs.
- The library will not let her sign out a book.
14. Why does the woman need to find the book?
- She wants to borrow it for a friend.
- She wants it for her essay.
- She wants to learn about computer systems.
- She wants to collect it.
15. What does the man offer to do for the woman?
- He will help her to locate the material she wants from other libraries.
- He will ask his friends about the material she needs.
- He asks her to go to the nearest library.
- He asks her to go to the bookstore.
16. What if the woman borrows more than 5 books from other libraries?
- She has to return the books earlier than usual.
- She has to pay a small service charge.
- She has to fill in a special form.
- She has to deposit.
Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation.
17. When is the woman supposed to meet James?
- At noon
- At four o'clock
- At four fifteen
- At ten o'clock
18. What can be inferred about James?
- He is very lazy.
- He is punctual.
- He is not very punctual.
- He is very busy.
19. What is true about the man?
- He is a friend of Jane's and James'.
- He is Jane's teacher.
- He doesn't know James.
- He is an irresponsible man.
20. Why does Jane have this appointment?
- To meet her old friends
- To complain about James' behavior
- To prepare for her exam
- To have an interview
PART 3 QUESTIONS 21 - 35
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks, lectures or conversations. The talks, lectures or conversations will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk, lecture or conversation. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following conversation.
21. What did the woman do last night?
- Studied for a final test
- Worked on her paper
- Stayed in the computer lab
- Turned the paper in early
22. What is probably true about the woman?
- She called Professor Kensington and asked for an extension.
- She had her friend help to complete her paper.
- She had plenty of time to complete her paper last night.
- She completed his paper without help from anyone else.
23. What can be inferred about the man?
- He is too unhappy to express his anger to the woman.
- He does not feel the extension was necessary at all.
- He understands the reasoning behind the extension.
- He is planning to hand in the paper today no matter what.
24. What is the extension for the assignment submission?
- They have 1 more day.
- They have 2 more days.
- They have 1 more week.
- They have 2 more weeks.
25. What is the woman probably going to do next?
- She is going to revise the paper.
- She is going to talk with the professor.
- She is going to submit her paper.
- She is going to prepare for the exam.
Questions 26-30 refer to the following conversation.
26. Who is Professor Atkins?
- A math teacher
- A physics teacher
- A chemistry teacher
- A laboratory manager
27. What is the acceptable range of difference off the textbook?
- 4% or 5%
- 10%
- Less than 10%
- 45 %
28. What will the woman most likely do?
- Redo the experiment in the evenings
- Ask the professor for more time
- Hand in the experiment as it is
- Lower her results by 10% from the textbook
29. When is the experiment due day?
- Tomorrow
- Next week
- Tuesday
- Friday
30. What does the professor advise Julie to do?
- Spend more time in the lab
- Clean the tubes before the experiment
- Ask someone to help her
- Meet him after class hours in the lab
Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following professor's lecture.
31. What is true about Alaska?
- It is the second largest state in the USA.
- It is bordered by Canada on the East.
- It is smaller than California and Texas combined.
- It is populous.
32. What is the average number of students in a middle school classroom?
- 10
- 15
- 20
- 25
33. Which of the following is a popular transportation system in Alaska?
- Airplane
- Ship
- Railway
- A complex highway system
34. What will the professor probably talk about in the next class?
- The volcanic eruption of Mount Katmai in the early 20th century.
- The type of airplanes used by Alaskans to move from point to point.
- The amount of food imported by the Alaskans to balance out their miniscule farming production.
- The effects of seismic sea waves that reach tar inland and destroy communities.
35. What can be inferred about life in Alaska?
- It is a fantastic place to dwell for anyone.
- It is probably not very desirable for some to live in.
- It is not a place that he knows much about.
- It is a peaceful place without any worries to think about.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Cần cố gắng: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng nghe cơ bản. Hãy tập trung nghe và làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi thường gặp.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy luyện tập nghe các bài nói dài và chú ý đến các chi tiết gây nhiễu.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng nghe của bạn rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ để đạt được kết quả cao nhất trong kỳ thi thật.
Reading
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Time allowance: You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 10
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has began to develop. Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up in so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective.
Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenethylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches, tea, and grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book “Why Your Child is Hyperactive”. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.
Question 1
The topic of this passage is ________.
- reactions to foods
- food and nutrition
- infants and allergies
- a good diet
Question 2
According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to ________.
- the vast number of different foods we eat
- lack of a proper treatment plan
- the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
- the use of prepared formula to feed babies
Question 3
The word “symptoms” is closest in meaning to ________.
- indications
- diet
- diagnosis
- prescriptions
Question 4
The phrase “set off” is closest in meaning to ________.
- relieved
- identified
- avoided
- triggered
Question 5
What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
- They can eat almost anything.
- They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
- They gain little benefit from being breastfed.
- They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
Question 6
The word “hyperactive” is closest in meaning to ________.
- overly active
- unusually low activity
- excited
- inquisitive
Question 7
The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with the infant's ________.
- lack of teeth
- poor metabolism
- underdeveloped intestinal tract
- inability to swallow solid foods
Question 8
The word “these” refers to ________.
- food additives
- food colorings
- innutritious foods
- foods high in salicylates
Question 9
Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
- Using vitamin B in addition to a good diet
- Avoiding all Oriental foods
- Getting plenty of sodium nitrate
- Eating more ripe bananas
Question 10
According to the article, the Feingold diet is NOT ________.
- available in book form
- verified by researchers as being consistently effective
- beneficial for hyperactive children
- designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
PASSAGE 2 QUESTIONS 11 - 20
Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women in business, the demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept the number of women entrepreneurs small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than $40 billion in annual revenues, and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. As Carolyn Doppelt Gray, an official of the Small Business Administration, has noted, “The 1970s was the decade of women entering management, and the 1980s turned out to be the decade of the woman entrepreneur”.
What are some of the factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more women earn advanced degrees in business and enter the corporate world, they are finding obstacles. Women are still excluded from most executive suites. Charlotte Taylor, a management consultant, had noted, “In the 1970s women believed if they got an MBA and worked hard they could become chairman of the board. Now they’ve found out that isn’t going to happen, so they go out on their own”.
In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in “women’s” fields: cosmetics and clothing, for example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer Systems, a $22-million-a-year computer software business. It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife with degrees in Math and Engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first product was software that let weekly newspapers keep tabs on their newspaper carriers and her office was a bedroom at home, with a shoebox under the bed to hold the company’s cash. After she succeeded with the newspaper software system, she hired several bright computer-science graduates to develop additional programs. When these were marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 200 employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock.
Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They still face hurdles in the business world, especially problems in raising money: the banking and finance world is still dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned by women are still quite small. But the situation is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in the years ahead.
Question 11
What is the main idea of this passage?
- Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the business world.
- The computer is especially lucrative for women today.
- Women are better at small businesses than men are.
- Women today are opening more businesses of their own.
Question 12
The word “excluded” in the second paragraph has the closest meaning to ________.
- not permitted in
- often invited to
- decorators of
- charged admission to
Question 13
All of the following are mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the business world EXCEPT ________.
- women were required to stay at home with their families
- women lacked ability to work in business
- women faced termination in business
- women were not trained in business
Question 14
In paragraph 2, “that” refers to ________.
- a woman becoming the chairman of the board
- women working hard
- women achieving advanced degrees
- women believing that business is a place for them
Question 15
According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in the 1970s ________.
- were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management
- were still more interested in education than business opportunities
- had fewer obstacles in business than they do today
- were unable to work hard enough to succeed in business
Question 16
The author mentions the “shoebox under the bed” in the third paragraph in order to ________.
- show the frugality of women in business
- show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig
- point out that initially the financial resources of Sandra Kurtzig’s business were limited
- suggest that the company needed to expand
Question 17
The word “this” in the third paragraph refers to ________.
- women becoming entrepreneurs
- women buying cosmetics and clothing
- women working in “women’s fields”
- women staying at home
Question 18
The expression “keep tabs on” in the third paragraph has the closest meaning to ________.
- recognize the appearance of
- keep records of
- provide transportation for
- pay the salaries of
Question 19
It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that businesses operated by women are small because ________.
- women prefer a small intimate setting
- women can’t deal with money
- women are not able to borrow money easily
- many women fail at large businesses
Question 20
The author’s attitude about the future of women in business is ________.
- skeptical
- optimistic
- frustrated
- negative
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện thêm. Hãy tập trung vào việc đọc kỹ và xác định ý chính của từng đoạn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc và nắm bắt thông tin tốt. Hãy tiếp tục luyện tập để tăng tốc độ và độ chính xác.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng.
PASSAGE 1 (QUESTIONS 1 - 10)
Symbiosis is a close ecological relationship between two dissimilar organisms. They assist each other with feeding, defending, and reproducing. In symbiosis, at least one of the pair benefits from the relationship. The other may be injured (parasitism), unaltered (commensalism), or may also benefit (mutualism).
An interesting mutually dependent relationship exists between the pine and the pinon jay. Blue pinon jays settle on the tops of pine trees and pick at conund seeds from the sticky cones. They store the seeds in their throats, fly off and hide them somewhere, and then return to repeat the process again. It seems the reproductive cycle of a pine jay corresponds with the ripening of the pine's seed. Similarly, the pine is dependent on the pinon jays for distribution of the seeds.
Seeds are stored in the bark of a tree or in the ground. Using their long bills, pinon jays plant and store them for later consumption. Their throats can expand to hold a large number of seeds; one pinon jay has been reported carrying 50 seeds in one trip. After they have planted the seeds, they return to eat them. Using their bills like a woodpecker, they hammer the seed until the shell breaks. Any unrecovered nuts are then grown into new trees. This fascinating relationship has been ongoing for thousands of years.
When both species benefit each other, it is called mutualism. An example of mutualism is a plant and fungi. The fungus occupies the cortex cells of the secondary roots of the plant. This relationship is called a 'mycorrhiza.' It helps the plant absorb inorganic nitrogen and phosphorus from the soil. Some fungi also produce antibiotics which may prevent the invasion of parasitic fungi and bacteria. Another example of mutualism is pollination. Bees carry pollen from one plant to the next when they seek out plants for nectar. They feed themselves on the nectar, and the plants reproduce after fertilization by the pollen from other plants.
Mutualism can also bring together two very different organisms, a buffalo and an ox bird. These birds journey on the backs of African buffalo eating their parasites. The bird receives food, and the buffalo is rid of irritating insects. There are also a number of fish that provide an excellent example of mutualism. Known as 'cleaner fish,' these fish get rid of parasites and dead skin found on other fish. The best-known example is the 'cleaner wrasse,' which dwells in the Pacific and Indian oceans. They clean large predatory fish by eating tissue and parasites off their skin. This relationship provides food and protection for the wrasse and several health benefits for the other fish.
The other two types of symbiosis, besides mutualism, are commensalism and parasitism. [A] Commensalism refers to a symbiotic relationship where one organism eats the unused food of another. [B] One benefits, but the other is not affected. Examples include the remora and the shark. The remora attaches itself to the shark, when the shark feeds itself, the remora picks up scraps. [C] One example of commensalism in humans is bacteria living in our intestines that feed on food in our gut. [D]
In parasitism, one organism benefits and the other is harmed. Parasites live off the body of other organisms and receive nourishment from their tissues, while also inflicting damage on their hosts. Plants are parasitized by bacteria, fungi, and a handful of other plants. Pararistes cause harm by entering the tissue of the host for their own nutritional benefit.
None of these relationships are fixed, and it is likely that what starts as a parasitic relationship may gradually evolve into a mutualistic one. For example, in 1966, amebas were discovered that had become infected with bacteria. However, after five years, it was found that the core of the amebas had become dependent on the bacteria; thus, parasitism had evolved into mutualism. Unfortunately, the inverse is also possible; mutualistic associations may evolve into parasitic ones.
Question 1
According to paragraph 2, what does the pinon jay do for the pine tree?
- It gives the tree important nutrition.
- It provides a primary means of seed dissemination for pinon trees
- It keeps the tree free from parasites.
- It helps the tree produce larger seeds.
Question 2
The word “corresponds” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- matches
- includes
- exposes
- protects
Question 3
According to paragraph 3, how does the blue pinon jay store the seeds for later?
- By holding up to 50 in its mouth
- By burying them in the ground
- By protecting them in its nest
- By allowing them to develop into new frees
Question 4
The word “it” in the fourth paragraph refers to ________.
- bacteria
- mutualism
- mycorrhiza
- fungus
Question 5
According to paragraph 5, what is an example of a mutual relationship?
- An animal eating parasites from another
- An animal licking the body of another
- An animal providing protection for another
- An animal keeping another awake and alert
Question 6
The author mentions “the remora and the shark” in the passage in order to ________.
- explain the details behind a mutualist association
- demonstrate a connection between an active parasite picker and host
- show how one animal can benefit from the acts of another
- give an example of one animal causing the suffering of another
Question 7
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in seventh paragraph?
- There are many types of creatures that are very well developed and have the strength to support other species.
- Sometimes, the organisms supplying parasites are very harmful to their hosts.
- Some animals are selfish and only cause damage to their hosts.
- Organisms which must depend on others die easily because they are not strong.
Question 8
The word “gradually” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- slowly
- increasingly
- constantly
- rapidly
Question 9
According to the passage, which of the following is NOT an example of mutualism?
- A plant and its fungi
- Pollen transfer from one plant to another
- The remora and the shark
- A buffalo and an ox bird
Question 10
Look at the four squares [A], [B], [C], [D] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage. "They are completely safe and may possibly help us, hence a commensalist relationship." Where would the sentence best fit?
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
PASSAGE 2 (QUESTIONS 11 - 20)
Earth has several distinct layers; the outermost of these is the crust, which has an inconsistent thickness of 35-70 km in the continents and 5-10 km in the ocean basins. The second layer is known as the mantle, which is about 2,900 km thick, and divided into an upper and a lower mantle. Most of Earth's internal heat is situated here. The upper mantle has an area known as the low-velocity zone, where secondary waves decrease rapidly and then gradually increase. The last layer is the core. This is a thick ball of iron and nickel divided into two layers, the inner core and the outer core.
The inner core is solid, whereas the outer core is so hot that the metal is always molten. However, because the force at the inner core is so immense, it cannot melt. Due to Earth's rotation, the outer core spins around the inner core, which causes the Earth's magnetism. The inner core consists of iron, nickel and other elements, probably a mix of carbon, oxygen, sulphur, silicon, and potassium. The temperature is extremely high, and due to pressure, the core is solid. Because the outer core is liquid, mainly consisting of iron, nickel and about 10% oxygen and sulphur, here the temperature is not as high.
Both the outer and inner cores together create the Earth's magnetism. The core has a huge influence on Earth. Because it is so hot, it radiates a natural heat to the upper layers, setting off a current of heat, which in turn causes the movement of the tectonic plates. Because of Earth's rotation, the outer core spins, but the inner core does not because it is solid. This provides a sort of dynamo effect and causes the Earth's magnetic force.
A seismic wave is a wave that travels through Earth; it is often the result of a tectonic earthquake. There are two kinds of seismic waves, “body waves” and “surface waves”. Other waves do exist, but are of little importance. Body waves travel through the center of Earth, following ray paths which are bent by the unstable density and stiffness of Earth's interior. These differ according to temperature, phase, and structure. Body waves send out the first tremors of an earthquake as well as any later ones.
There are two kinds of body waves, “primary” and “secondary” waves. Primary waves are compression waves, meaning the ground is alternately compressed and expanded in the direction of propagation. These waves can travel slightly faster through solids than secondary waves can, and are also able to travel through any type of material. Through air, they take the form of sound waves and so travel at the speed of sound.
Primary waves, when created by an earthquake, are less destructive than sound waves due to their minor amplitudes. Secondary waves are tilted waves; in other words, the ground is shifted vertically in the direction of transmission. Here, the ground moves from one side to the other. Secondary waves ‘are only able to travel through solids, not liquids or gases, and thus are unable to travel through Earth's core. Primary waves are faster than secondary waves. Primary and secondary waves are usually produced by earthquakes and volcanoes. However, they can also be produced by people using explosives or large machinery.
Surface waves are comparable to water waves traveling just under Earth's surface. They travel at slower speeds than body waves. Surface waves can be the most devastating type of seismic wave due to their low frequency, long duration, and large amplitude. In theory, they are understood as a system which relates to primary and secondary waves.
[A] The moment an earthquake occurs, seismographs try to record its primary and secondary waves, but often they cannot detect the secondary waves of a distant earthquake. [B] This may be due to the fact that secondary waves are unable to pass through liquids. [C] This information about wave travel helps scientists determine the internal structure of the planet. [D]
Question 11
In paragraph 1, what does the author say about the presence of the low-velocity zone in the Earth's interior?
- It causes high-frequency stimulation.
- Its width is consistent with the fault zone.
- It induces regionally extensive oscillations.
- It is located just above the lower crustal boundary.
Question 12
The word “immense” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- compressed
- dilated
- immeasurable
- varied
Question 13
According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true about the inner core?
- It contributes to the Earth's magnetic field.
- It is always molten and liquid.
- It is under a lot of pressure.
- It mainly consists of iron, nickel and some lighter elements.
Question 14
According to paragraph 3, which of the following is the reason for tectonic plate movement?
- The convection of heat from the core
- The gravitational effect of the core
- The powerful magnetic forces of the core
- The spinning of the inner and outer core together
Question 15
Why does the author mention “a tectonic earthquake” in the passage?
- To show that primary waves are far more powerful than secondary waves
- To demonstrate the effect of seismic waves on the Earth
- To develop understanding of the structure of the Earth's Ulterior
- To explain that scientific detection methods are very efficient
Question 16
The word “phase” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- change
- period
- heat
- construction
Question 17
The word “devastating” in the seventh paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- faint
- productive
- destructive
- quiet
Question 18
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the last paragraph?
- Although primary and secondary waves would be recorded, the secondary waves are not strong enough to be detected at a distance.
- Seismic waves are too small to be felt as a noticeable earthquake, but detectable by seismographs.
- Secondary waves can be generated as a result of nonlinear interaction, so seismographs cannot detect them.
- Because of extensive fault repetition, the primary wave is the most powerful force in an earthquake.
Question 19
It can be inferred from the passage that the author most likely believes which of the following about earthquakes in the world?
- Volcanoes would not exist if earthquakes never happened.
- They are caused by the force of primary waves hitting the crust.
- They are primarily caused by the heat from the Earth’s core.
- There is no more destructive thing in the world.
Question 20
Look at the four squares [A], [B], [C], [D] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage. "For example, with the use of secondary waves, scientists were able to suggest that Earth has a liquid outer core." Where would the sentence best fit?
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần nỗ lực hơn: Bạn cần rèn luyện thêm kỹ năng đọc hiểu và xác định ý chính của đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc hiểu tương đối tốt. Hãy tập trung vào việc phân tích các câu hỏi phức tạp hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng! Hãy tiếp tục phát huy.
LISTENING
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording. There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only. Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
PART 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 8
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D.
1. Where would you probably hear this announcement?
- In a moving van
- In a school
- In an office building
- In an office supply shop
2. When would someone hear this message?
- Calling a newspaper company
- Calling a journalist
- Calling a telephone company
- Calling a law firm
3. How long are the classes?
- 45 minutes
- An hour
- An hour and a half
- Two hours
4. What should Jen do tomorrow?
- Turn her cell phone back on
- Check her email, even if it is at home
- Make sure she gets an office address
- Give people her new contact information
5. What is the purpose of this announcement?
- To discuss the news
- To give information
- To ask for help
- To demand a report
6. What is the main point of this announcement?
- To welcome visitors
- To ask people to leave soon
- To tell people about the exhibition
- To ask people to come
7. Who is Gary Reynolds?
- A security officer
- An airline pilot
- A flight attendant
- An airline employee
8. What does the woman recommend the listeners do?
- Go to the website
- Go back to their rooms
- Talk to the hotel manager
- Wait for more information
PART 2 QUESTIONS 9 - 20
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation.
9. What is the main topic of this conversation?
- How to get a better grade in class
- How to write a better essay
- How to write a paragraph
- How to organize an essay
10. According to professor Smith, what is important for essay writing?
- Many good ideas
- Strong introduction
- Summary
- Organization
11. How many parts are there in an essay?
- Two
- Three
- Four
- Five
12. What are the functions of the body paragraphs?
- To summarize the main ideas
- To provide examples and ideas
- To provide evidences and details
- To give main ideas for an essay
Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation.
13. What is the main topic in this conversation?
- Taking a math test
- Getting a tutor
- Taking a midterm test
- Having a part-time job
14. What does the man ask the woman to do?
- Help him finish his homework
- Tutor him with a subject at school
- Teach him English
- Find him a good math teacher
15. What will happen if the students cheat?
- They will be expelled from school.
- They cannot take the final exam.
- They will be fined.
- They will have to study again.
16. Which of the following the tutor CANNOT do for the student?
- The learning strategies
- Taking notes
- Homework
- Learning tips
Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation.
17. What is the main topic of this conversation?
- Ways a student can make up for missed lectures
- How to avoid getting sick and missing school
- How to get a scholarship
- How to get high scores
18. Why did the woman miss the lessons?
- Because of her sickness
- Because of the laziness
- Because of the severe weather
- Because of her accident
19. What does the woman want the man to do for her?
- Lend her his notes
- Give her an extension
- Give her a scholarship
- Explain the lessons
20. What should the woman probably do next?
- Go on a vacation
- Go to the library to do some research
- Hang out with her classmates
- Apply for a scholarship
PART 3 QUESTIONS 21 - 35
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks, lectures or conversations. There are five questions for each talk, lecture or conversation. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following conversation.
21. What is the student's problem?
- He didn't do well on his final exam.
- He didn't do all his coursework.
- He missed too many classes.
- He moved away from the school.
22. What does the student want the professor to do?
- He wants her to give him a new test.
- He wants an immediate change of grade.
- He wants her to let him take the class again.
- He wants her to give him an incomplete in the class.
23. Why is it important for the student to maintain good grades?
- The student likes the course.
- It is the requirement of the financial aid package.
- It is what his parents want.
- The student is applying for a scholarship.
24. What is the professor's solution to the student's problem?
- He has to write 2 critical essays.
- He has to fill out a lot of paperwork.
- He has to re-read all of Shakespeare's plays.
- He has to read all the Shakespeare plays.
25. What is the student's attitude about the solution?
- Relieved
- Disappointed
- Shocked
- Ungrateful
Questions 26 to 30 refer to the following conversation.
26. Why does the student go to the tutoring center?
- Because she doesn't have a clue how to use a computer
- Because she wants help putting her presentation together
- Because she's never used the presentation viewer program before
- Because she's nervous about speaking in front of people
27. Which is NOT a visual?
- Text
- Bells and whistles
- Sounds and videos
- Images and graphics
28. What does the man say about using the presentation viewer program?
- It is an easy program to use.
- It is a very complicated program.
- It is not part of the tutoring subjects at the center.
- It doesn't have as many interesting features as the word processing.
29. What is the student concerned about?
- Researching her topic
- Working with the computer
- Speaking in front of other people
- How to operate the power source on her computer
30. What does the man advise the student to bring to the tutoring session?
- Her research paper
- Her outline
- The program
- Her laptop
Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following professor's lecture.
31. What is the focus of the lecture?
- Doug Levere's re-photography of Abbott's work
- Berenice Abbott's Changing New York project
- Two examples of photography supported by the FAP
- The effect of the Depression on Berenice Abbott's work
32. According to the professor, why was Abbott a good candidate for the FAP?
- She had already been documenting America.
- She had a fresh perspective due to her recent return.
- She was willing to change her approach to fit the FAP.
- She was a widely recognized figure in the art world.
33. Based on the lecture, what artistic characteristics did Abbott reject in her art?
- Modern urban life
- Depiction of older buildings
- Meticulous composition
- Rural settings and landscapes
34. What did Abbott do to "keep the life in her shots"?
- Use a hand-held camera
- Include random people in the frame
- Frame scenes of urban activity
- Juxtapose old and new buildings
35. What is the professor's attitude toward Levere's re-photography of Abbott's work?
- Concerned
- Unimpressed
- Disappointed
- Complimentary
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Dưới 4.0: Bạn cần xây dựng lại nền tảng nghe cơ bản. Hãy tập trung vào việc nghe các đoạn hội thoại ngắn và các thông báo đơn giản.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
4.0 - 6.0: Tốt! Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ở mức trung bình khá. Để cải thiện, hãy luyện tập nghe các bài giảng và hội thoại dài hơn, tập trung vào việc nắm bắt ý chính và các chi tiết quan trọng.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Trên 6.0: Rất tốt! Kỹ năng nghe của bạn khá vững chắc. Hãy tiếp tục thử thách bản thân với các bài nghe có tốc độ nhanh và chủ đề phức tạp hơn để đạt được điểm số cao hơn nữa.
READING
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Time allowance: You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 – QUESTIONS 1-10
The influx of Americans into Oregon in the 1840s ignited a dispute between Britain and the United States that, in its more intemperate phases, was accompanied by shrill demands in both countries for a war. The argument originated in the fact that the boundaries of Oregon had never been clearly fixed.
The name vaguely embraced the territory west of the Rockies between the northern boundary of Mexican-held California and the southern edge of Russian-held Alaska, which at the time extended south to parallel 54°40'. In 1818, when America proposed a boundary at the 49th parallel, an extension of the border with Canada that already existed east of the Rockies and the British suggested a line farther south, salesmen of both nations avoided the resulting impasse by agreeing to accept temporary “joint occupancy”.
But by the early 1840s, the issue could no longer be avoided: Oregon fever and Manifest Destiny had become potent political forces. Though many eastern Americans considered Oregon country too remote to become excited about, demands for its occupation were shouted with almost religious fervor. Senator Thomas Hart Benton, for one, urged Congress to muster “thirty or forty thousand American rifles beyond the Rocky Mountains that will be our effective negotiators”.
The Democratic Party made “54°40'or fight”, an issue of the 1844 Presidential election and just managed to install James K. Polk, an ardent expansionist, in the White House. But despite their seeming intransigence, neither Polk nor the British government wanted to fight. And just about the time that Polk learned that the land lying north of the 49th parallel was useless for agriculture, the British decided the American market for goods was worth far more than Oregon’s fast-dying fur trade. So they quietly settled for the 49th parallel, the boundary that the United States had proposed in the first place.
Question 1
What is the main idea of this passage?
- The disagreement over the boundaries of Oregon was peacefully solved.
- The United States wanted more land than it needed.
- Politicians in 1840 favored a war with Britain.
- The United States ended up sharing Oregon with Canada.
Question 2
The word “intemperate” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- untimely
- initial
- immoderate
- uninformed
Question 3
As used in the first paragraph, the word “fixed” is closest in meaning to ________.
- repaired
- adjusted
- built
- established
Question 4
The word “remote” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- far away
- dangerous
- large
- uninteresting
Question 5
The confrontation with Britain over Oregon boundaries came to a head in the early 1840s for all the following reasons EXCEPT ________.
- more people were living in Oregon at that time
- the expansionists made the situation a political issue
- all people were united in favoring the expansion and settlement of Oregon
- Manifest Destiny was a major political force at this time
Question 6
The word “ardent” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- superficial
- enthusiastic
- old
- moderate
Question 7
The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to ________.
- the Americans
- the British and the Americans
- the British
- the Democratic Party
Question 8
It can be inferred from the passage that Senator Thomas Hart Benton ________.
- was a temperate man
- supported the occupation of Oregon by force
- felt negotiation was the best policy
- proposed and approved the final boundary decision
Question 9
The 49th parallel was accepted by both parties in the border dispute for all of the following reasons EXCEPT ________.
- the dying fur trade in Oregon
- the attraction of the American market for goods
- the condition of the land north of 49°
- the desire for a good fight
Question 10
It can be inferred from the passage that in the final boundary settlement the United States ________.
- got the land that it had originally demanded
- got less land than it had originally demanded
- got more land than it had originally demanded
- had no interest in the land involved in the dispute
PASSAGE 2 – QUESTIONS 11-20
For all their great diversity of shapes and sizes, glaciers can be divided into two essential types: valley glaciers, which flow downhill from mountains and are shaped by the constraints of topography, and ice sheets, which flow outward in all directions from domelike centers of accumulated ice to cover vast expanses of terrain. Whatever their type, most glaciers are remnants of great shrouds of ice that covered the Earth eons ago. In a few of these glaciers, the oldest ice is very ancient indeed; the age of parts of the Antarctic sheet may exceed 500,000 years.
Glaciers are born in rocky wombs above the snow line, where there is sufficient winter snowfall and summer cold for snow to survive the annual melting. The long gestation period of a glacier begins with the accumulation and gradual transformation of snowflakes. Soon after they reach the ground, complex snowflakes are reduced to compact, roughly spherical ice crystals, the basic components of a glacier. As new layers of snow and ice that survives the melting of the previous summer, accumulate, they squeeze out most of the air bubbles trapped within and between the crystals below. This process of recrystallization continues throughout the life of the glacier.
The length of time required for the creation of glacier ice depends mainly upon the temperature and the rate of snowfall. In Iceland, where snowfall is heavy and summer temperatures are high enough to produce plenty of meltwater, glacier ice may come into being in a relatively short time, say, ten years. In parts of Antarctica, where snowfall is scant and the ice remains well below its melting temperature year-round, the process may require hundreds of years. The ice does not become a glacier until it moves under its own weight, and it cannot move significantly until it reaches a critical thickness, the point at which the weight of the piled-up layers overcomes the internal strength of the ice and the friction between the ice and the ground. This critical thickness is about 60 feet. The fastest moving glaciers have been gauged at not much more than two and a half miles per year, and some cover less than 1/100 inch in that same amount of time. But no matter how infinitesimal the flow, movement is what distinguishes a glacier from a mere mass of ice.
Question 11
This passage mainly discusses ________.
- the size and shape of glaciers
- the formation of glaciers
- why glaciers move
- types of glaciers
Question 12
The word “constraints” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- restrictions
- height
- beauty
- speed
Question 13
Why does the author mention the Antarctic ice sheet in the first paragraph?
- It is a slow-moving glacier.
- One would expect glaciers in this part of the world.
- It contains some of the oldest ice in existence.
- It is an example of a well-formed ice sheet.
Question 14
In order to describe the development of glaciers, the author uses the analogy of ________.
- birth
- snowflakes
- crystals
- Iceland
Question 15
The phrase “this process” in the second paragraph refers to ________.
- air bubbles being trapped below
- snow and ice compressing the ice crystals
- formation of ice from snow that is about to melt
- melting of summer snow
Question 16
The word “trapped” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- enclosed
- hunted
- formed
- stranded
Question 17
According to the passage, what is one of the differences between valley glaciers and ice sheets?
- Ice sheets move faster than valley glaciers.
- While valley glaciers flow downhill, ice sheets flow in all directions.
- Valley glaciers are thicker than ice sheets because of the restricting land formations.
- Valley glaciers are not as old as ice sheets.
Question 18
What does “it” in the last paragraph refer to ________.
- glacier
- weight
- ice
- critical thickness
Question 19
The word “significantly” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- quickly
- naturally
- thoroughly
- notably
Question 20
According to the passage, the characteristic that identifies a glacier is ________.
- the critical thickness of the ice
- the amount of ice accumulated
- the movement of the ice
- the weight of the ice
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần ôn luyện thêm: Bạn cần củng cố thêm kỹ năng đọc hiểu và xác định ý chính của đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc hiểu tương đối tốt. Hãy chú ý hơn đến các câu hỏi suy luận và từ vựng.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng! Hãy tiếp tục phát huy nhé.
PASSAGE 1
Pottery refers to dishes, plates, cups and cooking pots made out of clay. Chinese pottery was invented during the Neolithic period (5,000 - 2,200 BC) and it was molded by hand. Before this time, people had been nomadic, making it difficult to carry heavy, breakable pieces of pottery. At first, pottery was made by pushing a hole into a ball of clay or by taking a piece of clay and coiling it up into a pot shape. Many early pots were simple lumps of clay. However, people later discovered that clay, when placed in an open fire, hardened. This technique, known as firing, soon became common practice in pottery production.
People used pottery as a way of forming their social identity or showing who they were and how they were different from other people. Many of the designs that were used on pottery were usually borrowed from those already found on clothing and garments. The decoration of pottery began with simple incisions, which were later painted on. Gradually, plants, animals, and human figures were included on the vases. Mythological scenes were common as were dancers, musicians, and images from everyday life.
[A] Pottery also has roots in ancient China where, for centuries, people produced black, carved, and painted pieces from rough clay. It was in the Sui dynasty, however, that the aesthetics of pottery took a major leap forward. [B] Potters began experimenting with porcelain and the effect was a stunning, shiny new look and feel for Chinese ceramics. [C] This gleaming pottery became a popular not only in China, but in West Asia as well. [D] Inevitably, this led to a new market for cheap imitations.
After 1,200 AD, Chinese potters began using different colored glazes to create designs on their pots. Chinese pottery was still the best and most expensive. After thousands of years of advancements in technique and materials, painted porcelain such as blue and white, tri-color, and under-glazed became successfully produced.
The Chinese often used pottery as part of the burial ritual; bronze vessels were decorated with elaborate designs of plants and animals. In Chinese culture, jade symbolizes nobility, perfection, and immortality. Jade utensils were laid aover the deceased and some were placed in the mouth or enclosed in the hand. Liquids were placed in the vessels to help the dead in their afterlife and also to aid in funerary ceremonies in which the living communicated with deceased ancestors and gods in an altered state of consciousness after drinking fermented beverages.
Such vessels containing liquids have been excavated at centers near the Yellow River, especially from burials of elite, eminent individuals. Many pottery fragments and figurines have also been discovered in the Chang Jiang drainage area.
Pottery can be divided into three groups: those designed for storage, those for preserving or holding liquids, and those for special uses. The Greeks made pottery for many purposes. The custom of burning their dead involved using vases to collect the ashes. Some pottery served as decorative pieces, while others were used for ceremonies or during religious festivals Amphoras were larger vessels used to store liquids such as water or wine. Amphoras have occasionally been found in ancient shipwrecks; some held wine and others were shipped empty after selling their contents off to other countries. The Alabastron had special uses such as holding perfume or oil. The Skyphes, a flat-bottomed bowl, was used as a drinking cup.
Grecian soil had many deposits of clay near rivers. This abundance of raw material was not available to others, giving the Greeks a strategic advantage in manufacturing material. They made full use of clay. After its discovery, vessels were made in a wide range of sizes and shapes. Jugs, vases, fruit bowls, and feeding bottles were widely used in homes. Although some larger vessels were made of stone, glass, or metal, clay was by far the most prominent.
The ancient Egyptians used pottery and ceramic art for burial purposes. Four vases were sometimes deposited with the mummified body. A large number of vases which have been recovered had been buried with the dead in tombs. Some vases are found hanging or standing upright in the tomb. They appear to have been valued by the deceased, hence leaving them for burial in the tomb.
Question 1
According to paragraph 1, which of the following statements is true of early pottery?
- The first pots were made of hardened clay.
- The nomadic nature of man before the Neolithic period prevented the widespread use of pottery
- Pottery was invented as a way of storing fresh fish and meats.
- It was not possible to fashion clay into shapes for pottery.
Question 2
The word “incisions” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- figures
- squares
- paintings
- cuts
Question 3
Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about pottery designs?
- Designs helped the pot to stay together and not break.
- The designs on pottery reflected the culture of those who made them.
- Three basic techniques to produce pottery vessels have been used around the world.
- Pot design was imaginative and unique in every example.
Question 4
The word “gleaming” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- shiny
- dull
- delicate
- soft
Question 5
According to the passage, whose pottery was regarded as the most valuable?
- Japanese
- Egyptian
- Chinese
- Greek
Question 6
The author mentions “jade” in the fifth paragraph in order to ________.
- demonstrate how stone could be carved into pottery
- give an example of the use of expensive material in burials
- show how different cultures value different materials
- explain the difficulties in mining a stone for pottery
Question 7
The word “deceased” in the fifth paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- sick
- dying
- dead
- diseased
Question 8
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 8?
- The use of substantial amounts of clay in Greece resulted in a culture rich in pottery.
- The ancient Greeks had a more advanced way to construct pottery.
- Pottery making was harder for the ancient Greeks, but pottery was important to them for storage.
- Pottery was very convenient and useful because the raw material, clay, was abundant and simple to shape and fire in Greek.
Question 9
According to the passage, which of the following was NOT a use of pottery?
- Storing wine
- Holding ashes
- Ceremonial offerings
- Cooking
Question 10
Look at the four squares [...] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage. However, it was very expensive there because it had to be carried from China on camels and donkeys. Where would the sentence best fit?
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
PASSAGE 2
Louis Pasteur was arguably the greatest biologist of the 19th century. His immense contributions were among the most varied and beneficial in the field of science and industry. Pasteur's methods of conducting experiments illustrated brilliance, which started when he studied the crystal structure. He observed that tartrate, when created in a laboratory, was optically inactive. This is different from the tartrate from grapes because the artificial tartrate is composed of two optically asymmetric crystals. Pasteur succeeded in unraveling the asymmetric crystals from each other and showed that each regained optical activity.
He then theorized that living organisms only produce molecules that are of one specific objective and that these molecules are active at all times. This experiment contradicted “Milscherlich” who had observed only a single type of crystal. Later in his career, Pasteur was approached by the parent of one of his students, regarding a contamination problem in alcoholic fermentation. At the time, fermentation to the making of wine, or beer was thought to be a simple breakdown of sugar to the favored molecules. Yeast cells were believed to be either a useful ingredient in maintaining or simply a product of fermentation.
The manufacturers of alcohol were having economic problems related to fermentation. Wine would suddenly turn sour or into vinegar, or the quality and taste of beer would suddenly change. Therefore, the producers would have to start anew. Pasteur proved that yeast was an organism which did not necessitate oxygen for fermentation to occur. This proved to Justin von Liebig, who had upheld that fermentation was purely chemical, that he was incorrect.
Pasteur was able to prove that the yeast was responsible for forming alcohol from sugar and that contaminating microorganisms turned the fermentations sour. Over the years, he segregated the organisms that were responsible for normal and abnormal fermentations when producing wine or beer. He demonstrated that if he heated them to mild temperatures, this would kill the microorganisms and prevent souring. This was a major discovery and Pasteur showed brewers how to refine the right organisms for good beer. He proposed that heating wine to a high temperature before bottling it would prevent souring. This is now known as pasteurization.
All this had given Pasteur an iconic status throughout the world. After his research on fermentation, he refuted the principle of spontaneous generation. The theory that maggots, beetles and microbes could arise spontaneously from matter had always been a matter of speculation. Pasteur carried out ingenious experiments wiping out every argument in favor of spontaneous generation. In his famous experiment using the “swan neck flask”, fermented juice was put in a flask and after sterilization, the neck was heated, (this resembled the neck of a swan). The end of the neck was then sealed. If the flask was opened by pinching off the end of the neck, air would enter but dust would get trapped on the inside of the neck which was wet. The fluid, however, would still be germ free. If the flask was tipped over allowing the juice to touch the inside of the neck, microorganisms would grow instantly.
Pasteur's work with silkworm parasites and germs led to the proposal of the germ theory of disease. After visiting the hospital wards, he became more aware of the infections being spread by physicians from sick patients to the healthy patients. He compelled doctors to disinfect their instruments by boiling and steaming them. Surgeons were told to wash their hands and use disinfectant. At the time, countries were suffering from anthrax, which is a disease that affects cattle. He believed it was possible that if the animals were intentionally infected with a very mild case of the disease, this may be enough to prevent them from getting the disease later on. To prove this, he needed to test his theory on live animals.
[A] They recovered and, when placed with cattle that did have the disease, they remained immune. [B] Pasteur's last major research success was the development of a vaccine against rabies. [C] Institutes were built and people were treated for the disease in them. Pasteur was a national hero in France. [D] He died in 1895 and was given a state funeral.
Question 11
The word “inactive” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- motionless
- occupied
- dangerous
- reactive
Question 12
According to paragraph 2, what evidence contradicted the previous beliefs of “Milscherlich”?
- Proof of the process of fermentation
- Molecules being active at all times
- Observed only a single type of crystal
- Molecules produce all living organisms
Question 13
According to Pasteur's experiments, what did he prove to be true?
- The wine would change to vinegar because of fermentation.
- Microorganisms were present in all alcoholic drinks.
- Yeast was an organism that did not need oxygen to work.
- The fermentation was a purely chemical process.
Question 14
The word “necessitate” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- facilitate
- require
- produce
- consume
Question 15
According to paragraph 5, what did Pasteur publicly refute?
- That fermentation contributed to spontaneous generation
- That bottle-neck glasses can keep things germ-free
- That maggots can form suddenly from matter without warning
- That flies were created from the maggots on dead meat
Question 16
Why does the author describe Pasteur’s “swan neck flask” experiment in the passage?
- To explain the method of scientific experimentation
- To demonstrate the correct way to do a scientific experiment
- To show how microbes contribute to spontaneous generation
- To illustrate exactly how Pasteur determined his findings
Question 17
The word “ingenious” in the fifth paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
- original
- tremendous
- controlled
- significant
Question 18
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 6?
- Most patients became sick from being infected by doctors in the emergency room.
- Hospital wards had become dirty and dangerous places due to the lack of proper training and space.
- Pasteur learned that infections could be transmitted to healthy patients from dirty, non-sterile instruments doctors had used on previous patients.
- Healthy patients could become infected by sick people, simply by the shake of a hand or sharing a drink.
Question 19
According to the passage, which method was NOT used in Pasteur’s experiments?
- Sealed bottles under observation
- Disinfection of materials and instruments
- Heating to mild temperatures
- Going into animal experimentation known to be scientifically unsound
Question 20
Look at the four squares [...] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage. Pasteur was successful in producing a safe version of anthrax bacteria which he then injected into a population of cows. Where would the sentence best fit?
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng đọc hiểu cơ bản. Hãy luyện tập đọc các đoạn văn ngắn và trả lời câu hỏi để cải thiện.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc và nắm bắt thông tin tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy chú ý đến các chi tiết nhỏ và các câu hỏi suy luận.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì và thử thách bản thân với các bài đọc phức tạp hơn.
LISTENING TEST 06
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording. There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only.
Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
PART 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 8
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.
Câu 1: Why is the speaker apologizing?
- For being late
- For the delay
- For low inventory
- For a closure
Câu 2: Why would Daniel Jergens like to reschedule the meeting?
- To satisfy a request from Barrier Associates
- To complete the purchase more quickly
- To reconsider the contract
- To avoid the severe weather condition
Câu 3: Why will the information technology division be relocating earlier?
- Because of an increase in staff
- Because of an interruption of network service
- Because of the full relocation
- Because of the high release costs
Câu 4: What is the message mainly about?
- A question about substituting order items
- A question about the number of the items
- The list of items that will be delivered
- The shipping service that will be used
Câu 5: What is the purpose of the talk?
- To address customer complaints
- To discuss a presentation
- To celebrate a new contract
- To hand out assignments
Câu 6: Who most likely is the speaker?
- A landlord
- A business executive
- A real estate agent
- A police officer
Câu 7: What will be provided for the travelers?
- A free flight
- Meal vouchers
- Winter clothing
- Hotel rooms
Câu 8: What is the celebration for?
- A merger
- An anniversary
- A new CEO
- A stock offering
PART 2 QUESTIONS 9 - 20
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation.
Câu 9: Where most likely is the plumber now?
- He is having lunch.
- He is working somewhere else.
- He is at home relaxing.
- He is doing a favor for the man.
Câu 10: When is the plumber expected to arrive?
- At one o'clock
- At two o'clock
- At three o'clock
- At four o'clock
Câu 11: Where is the man going?
- To meet a client
- To talk to the plumber
- To fix the pipe
- To have lunch
Câu 12: When will the man come back to his office?
- At one o'clock
- At two o'clock
- At three o'clock
- At four o'clock
Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation.
Câu 13: When is the conference scheduled to take place?
- Today
- Tomorrow
- Next week
- Next month
Câu 14: Why will John miss the conference?
- He is going on a business trip.
- He is taking a vacation in Europe.
- He has too much work.
- He has to review the videos.
Câu 15: Where has the man just been to for a business trip?
- Chicago
- Toronto
- Europe
- Asia
Câu 16: Why is the man thanking the woman?
- She offered to give him a ride.
- She will lend him her video recorder.
- She will go to the seminar in his place.
- She will record the sessions he wants to see.
Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation.
Câu 17: Where is the conversation most likely taking place?
- In a truck
- At the bus stop
- In a warehouse
- At an electronics store
Câu 18: When will the computers arrive at the store?
- In five minutes
- In fifteen minutes
- By this evening
- By tomorrow morning
Câu 19: Who is most likely to be the man?
- A manager
- A director
- A secretary
- A blue-collar worker
Câu 20: What will the man do next?
- Call the electronics shop
- Talk to the truck driver
- Turn on the computer
- Lift some boxes
PART 3 QUESTIONS 21 - 35
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks, lectures or conversations. The talks, lectures or conversations will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk, lecture or conversation. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following professor's lecture.
Câu 21: What is the main topic of the lecture?
- Russian leaders
- The Cold War
- The wars between the USSR and the US
- The impacts of the Cold War
Câu 22: Why did the US and the USSR never actually fight each other?
- Because the USSR had nuclear weapons.
- Because the US were afraid of Stalin.
- Because they did not want to destroy the world.
- Because nuclear power could destroy the US.
Câu 23: According to the professor, how long did the Cold War last?
- Around 50 years
- Around 60 years
- Around 70 years
- Around 80 years
Câu 24: What can be inferred from the lecture?
- The Cold War was caused by different opinions.
- The Cold War was a long, violent war between the US and USSR.
- The Cold War was an important time in the history of the US and the USSR.
- The Cold War changed the world dramatically.
Câu 25: How does the professor describe the main topic?
- By comparing and contrasting
- By giving examples
- By listing the events chronologically
- By giving definitions
Questions 26 to 30 refer to the following conversation.
Câu 26: What is the lecture mainly about?
- The way the eye sees colors
- The steps to paint in a Neo-Impressionism style
- The artists who learned from Seurat
- The difference between painting styles
Câu 27: What is the professor's opinion of this style of painting?
- He thinks painting in brush strokes is a better way.
- He is surprised that so many artists are good at it
- He thinks it is difficult to learn.
- He doesn't like it.
Câu 28: According to the professor, why did Seurat not blend his paints?
- He thought it would ruin the paints.
- He thought mixed paints did not look real.
- He thought blended paints made paintings look too divided.
- He thought it would make the art bright.
Câu 29: What is true about Georges Seurat?
- He was the best artist at his time.
- He was proud of his painting style.
- He used brush strokes to make the pictures brighter.
- He didn't spend a lot of time finishing his paintings.
Câu 30: How did the professor organize the information about this way of painting?
- By describing only Seurat's style
- By describing only other styles
- By comparing Seurat and other Neo-Impressionists
- By comparing Neo-Impressionism and other styles
Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following professor's lecture.
Câu 31: What is the lecture about?
- The feeding habits of snakes
- How certain snakes protect themselves
- The most dangerous snakes in the world
- The different uses of snake poison
Câu 32: Why does the professor discuss the beads on a rattlesnake's tail?
- To show how the rattlesnake is more dangerous than other snakes
- To compare the rattlesnake to less scary animals
- To explain how the rattlesnake scares off animals
- To describe how the rattlesnake uses its tail to hunt
Câu 33: According to the professor, where does the spitting cobra spray its poison?
- At the animal it is hunting
- At other snakes
- At the tongue of an animal that is attacking it
- At the eyes of an animal that is attacking it
Câu 34: What is the professor's attitude towards the hognose snake?
- She is amazed by it.
- She thinks that it is stupid.
- She thinks that it is the best snake.
- She thinks that it is the most dangerous.
Câu 35: What can be inferred from the lecture?
- The spitting cobra rattles its tail.
- The hognose snake pretends to be sick.
- Beads in a rattlesnake's tail make the sound.
- There are no creatures that eat snakes.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Cần cố gắng nhiều: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng nghe cơ bản và làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi VSTEP. Hãy bắt đầu với các đoạn nghe ngắn và đơn giản.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Khá tốt (B1-B2): Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc nghe các bài giảng dài và nhận biết các thông tin gây nhiễu trong các đoạn hội thoại.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Rất tốt (C1): Chúc mừng! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng nghe hiểu rất ấn tượng, có thể theo dõi tốt các bài nói dài và phức tạp. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này.
READING TEST 6
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Time allowance: You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 10
The rapid transcontinental settlement and these new urban industrial circumstances of the last half of the 19th century were accompanied by the development of national literature of great abundance and variety. New themes, new forms, new subjects, new regions, new authors, new audiences all emerged in the literature of this half century.
As a result, at the onset of World War I, the spirit and substance of American literature had evolved remarkably, just as its center of production had shifted from Boston to New York in the late 1880s and the sources of its energy to Chicago and the Midwest. No longer was it produced, at least in its popular forms, in the main by solemn, typically moralistic men from New England and the Old South; no longer were polite, well-dressed, grammatically correct, middle-class young people the only central characters in its narratives; no longer were these narratives to be set in exotic places and remote times; no longer, indeed, were fiction, poetry, drama, and formal history the chief acceptable forms of literary expression; no longer, finally, was literature read primarily by young, middle-class women.
In sum, American literature in these years fulfilled in considerable measure the condition Walt Whitman called for in 1867 in describing Leaves of Grass: it treats, he said of his own major work, each state and region as "and expands from them, and includes the world connecting an American citizen with the citizens of all nations". At the same time, these years saw the emergence of what has been designated "the literature of argument," powerful works in sociology, philosophy, psychology, many of them impelled by the spirit of exposure and reform. Just as America learned to play a role in this half century as an autonomous international political, economic, and military power, so did its literature establish itself as a producer of major works.
Câu 1
The main idea of this passage is _______.
- that the new American literature was less provincial than the old one
- that World War I caused a dramatic change in America
- that centers of culture shifted from East to West
- that most people were wary of the new literature
Câu 2
It can be inferred from the passage that the previous passage probably discussed _______.
- the importance of tradition to writers
- new developments in industrialization and population shifts
- the fashions and values of 19th century America
- the limitations of American literature to this time
Câu 3
The word "evolved" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- became famous
- turned back
- diminished
- changed
Câu 4
The word "it" in the second paragraph refers to _______.
- the population
- the energy
- American literature
- the manufacturing
Câu 5
The word "exotic" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- urban
- unusual
- well-known
- old-fashioned
Câu 6
The author uses the word "indeed" in the second paragraph for what purpose?
- To emphasize the contrast he is making
- For variety in a lengthy paragraph
- To wind down his argument
- To show a favorable attitude to these forms of literature
Câu 7
The phrase "these years" in the third paragraph refers to _______.
- 1850-1900
- the 1900s
- the early 1800s
- the present
Câu 8
It can be inferred from the passage that Walt Whitman _______.
- disliked urban life
- was disapproving of the new literature
- wrote Leaves of Grass
- was an international diplomat
Câu 9
All of the following can be inferred from the passage about the new literature EXCEPT _______.
- that it was not highly regarded internationally
- that it introduced new American themes, characters, and settings
- that it broke with many literary traditions of the past
- that it spoke to the issue of reform and change
Câu 10
This passage would probably be read in which of the following academic courses?
- European history
- American literature
- Current events
- International affairs
PASSAGE 2 QUESTIONS 11 - 20
When Daniel Boone died peacefully in bed in his son Nathan's elegant stone Missouri farmhouse on September 26, 1820, the surge of emigrants along the Oregon Trail was still a generation away. But Boone already exemplified the pioneer at his best. He was neither the physical giant (five feet nine) nor the innocent child of nature that legend has made of him. He was an intelligent, soft spoken family man who cherished the same wife for 57 years. He befriended Indians, preferred company to solitude, and when he told his wife it was time to move because a newcomer had settled some 70 miles away, he was joking. Pennsylvania-born, Boone was one of 11 children in a family of Quakers who migrated to North Carolina. There Boone was recruited at age 40 to undertake a scheme designed to open up Kentucky to settlers and establish it as a 14th colony. He arranged a deal by which the Cherokees sold 20 million acres for $20,000 worth of goods to Boone's employers, the Transylvania Company. It was all fair and square; the Indians had an attorney, an interpreter, and the sound advice of their squaws. The deal completed, Boone led a party from Tennessee through the Cumberland Gap, hacked out the Wilderness Road, and set up a town Boonesboro and a government. Elected a legislator, he introduced on the first session's first day a bill to protect game against wanton slaughter and a second bill to "improve the breed of horses". He got 2,000 acres for his work, but after the Revolution in which Boone won considerable fame as a militia commander the scheme of the Transylvania Company was declared illegal and Boone lost his land. Undaunted, he staked out more claims and lost them because he impatiently neglected to register his deeds. Ever hopeful, he accepted an invitation from Spanish-held Missouri to come and settle there and bring others with him. The Spanish gave him 8,500 acres and made him a judge. But the Louisiana Purchase, which embraced Missouri, again left him but not his children landless. Old and broke, Boone cheerfully continued hunting and trapping long after his hands shook. Shortly before he died, he was talking knowledgeably with young men about the joys to be experienced in settling California.
Câu 11
What is the author's purpose in writing this passage?
- To chronicle the life of a model pioneer
- To romanticize the legend of Daniel Boone
- To show Boone's many successes on the frontier
- To trace Boone's explorations in Kentucky, Missouri, and Louisiana
Câu 12
It can be inferred that one area in which Boone was NOT successful was _______.
- politics
- hunting and trapping
- business
- the military
Câu 13
The phrase "fair and square" the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
- honest
- simple
- efficient
- lucrative
Câu 14
It can be inferred from the passage that Boone died _______.
- a rich man
- an eternal optimist
- in California
- a lonely trapper
Câu 15
The word "solitude" is closest in meaning to _______.
- freedom
- recklessness
- loneliness
- carelessness
Câu 16
The Transylvania Company wanted Boone to _______.
- settle Kentucky
- ensure animal rights
- be fair to the Indians
- claim Missouri
Câu 17
The word "undaunted" is closest in meaning to _______.
- unscrupulous
- fearless
- undiscouraged
- uninformed
Câu 18
According to the passage, the Louisiana Purchase _______.
- Legitimized Boone's land claim in Missouri
- Revoked the earlier Spanish bequest to Boone
- Drove the Spanish from the East
- Excluded Missouri from its jurisdiction
Câu 19
What can be inferred from the passage about Boone's children?
- They were better off financially than Boone.
- They supported Boone's desire to settle new areas.
- They lived in Kentucky.
- They had no land due to Boone's bad investments.
Câu 20
The author's attitude toward Daniel Boone in the passage can be best described as _______.
- admiring
- critical
- admonishing
- indifferent
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cải thiện: Bạn cần đọc kỹ hơn để nắm bắt các ý chính và chi tiết trong đoạn văn. Hãy luyện tập thêm để cải thiện tốc độ và độ chính xác.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có kỹ năng đọc hiểu khá tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy chú ý đến các câu hỏi suy luận và từ vựng trong ngữ cảnh.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục phát huy nhé!
PASSAGE 3 QUESTIONS 21 - 30
The Solar System, as we know it, contains over 178 objects which revolve around our central star, or the Sun. Some of these objects can be seen from Earth with the unaided eye or an earth-based telescope, but the majority have only been detected through the development of instruments such as the Hubble Space Telescope, or unmanned probes like Voyager. These instruments operate outside Earth's atmosphere collecting information on the composition and behavior of objects in the Solar System, which has enabled researchers to hypothesize their origins.
[A] It is generally thought that a cloud of interstellar gas and dust known as a "nebula", was disturbed by some major event in space, possibly a supernova, about five billion years ago and began to collapse under its own gravity, forming a cloud. [B] The center of the cloud became so hot that it eventually exploded into a star with the cooler gases flowing around it. [C] In time, the gases condensed into dust, metals, and various kinds of ice in the cold outer reaches of space. [D] These solid particles collided with each other to form larger objects, or asteroids, as they continued to spin around our central star.
As these asteroids increased in size, their gravity began to pull in all the material in their immediate surroundings, and the largest of these went on to become planets. The very different composition of the inner planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars) and the outer planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune and Uranus) has led astronomers to hypothesize that their distances from the Sun caused them to develop at different rates and in different ways. According to the most widely-held opinions, the planets closest to the Sun, where all the ice particles were vaporized due to the incredible heat, were formed mostly of rock, silicates, and metals with high melting points. These particles collided and were pulled together by gravity. These inner planets have thin atmospheres or none at all, and few, if any, satellites, which would indicate that most of the available material was either pulled into their own gravity or burned away in the heat of the Sun.
The inner and outer planets are separated by an asteroid belt, consisting of material that was not able to form into planets due to Jupiter's immense gravity. Beyond this area, as more dust and ice particles escaped destruction by the Sun, four larger planets formed over a longer period of time in a far colder environment as material was thrown out from the center by the spinning star's centrifugal force. About a million years after the cooling of the original nebula, the Sun began to emit a stream of charged protons and electrons known as solar wind which blew the remaining gases outwards, to be sucked in by the outer planets which became gas giants. These planets attracted many objects in their vast gravity fields, some of which are big enough to be termed "satellites", and countless smaller fragments which formed rings around the planets.
The discovery of more objects in the Solar System in recent times has led to the need for further clarification. Far beyond the outer planets lies Pluto, which was originally considered to be the ninth planet, but which has since been found to be a binary system of two dwarf planets, the other being Charon. Pluto's origins may be in the recently discovered Kuiper Belt, the source of many of the comets which travel through the Solar System. This theory is based on Pluto's rock/ice composition which is similar to that of a comet. At one time, also thought to be a moon of Neptune, Pluto/Charon was reclassified in 2006 as one of three dwarf planets discovered so far, the others being Eris and Ceres.
Scientific knowledge is only as good as the ability of scientists to collect evidence, so as new advances are made in astronomy, the present theories may be disproved, as in the case of Pluto. The above account represents the consensus of current opinions on the matter.
Question 1
In paragraph 1, what does the author say about the role of the Hubble Space Telescope?
- It is too defective for our scientists to come up with definite answers to the origin of the universe.
- Scientists discovered billions of new planets by combining measurements from the Hubble Space Telescope with Voyager measurements.
- It solved the age of the universe and measured the age of what may be the youngest galaxy ever seen in the universe.
- It has helped unveil many mysteries or queries about our universe.
Question 2
The word "composition" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- make-up
- musical
- evolution
- revolution
Question 3
The word "disturbed" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- broken
- imported
- bothered
- attracted
Question 4
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the third paragraph?
- Planets formed from gases and dust particles after comets collided with the Sun.
- According to scientists, the manner in which planets developed was wholly dependent on their distance from jupiter's rings.
- The dissimilar make-up of the planets closest to the Sun and those farthest from the Sun suggests that their distance from the Sun affected their formation.
- Scientists believe the Sun evolved from the composition of several older planets in the solar system.
Question 5
According to paragraph 4, the inner and outer planets are separated by what?
- An asteroid belt
- A star
- Comets
- A moon
Question 6
According to the passage, all of the following are true about our solar system EXCEPT _______.
- Planets nearest the Sun were formed mostly of rock.
- There continue to be new discoveries as technology improves.
- Colliding asteroids eventually formed planets.
- Most of the comets in the solar system can be seen with the naked eye during an annular solar eclipse.
Question 7
Why does the author mention "Pluto" in paragraph 5?
- To discuss Pluto's rock/ice composition
- To introduce the concept of planet formation
- To show that new discoveries are always occurring
- To introduce the distinction between planets and dwarf planets
Question 8
It can be inferred from the passage that the planets _______.
- broke off from the rapidly spinning Moon
- collided more frequently, to spur the formation and growth of protoplanets
- were initially asteroids
- were formed by the collision of massive objects circling a black hole in eccentric orbits
Question 9
According to the passage, what were the universe's origins?
- A nebula collapsed under its gravity.
- A black hole exploded and merged to create the universe.
- A super being wished it into existence.
- The Sun collapsed in on itself.
Question 10
Look at the four squares [A], [B], [C], [D] in the second paragraph. Where would the following sentence best fit?
This cloud began to rotate rapidly as it got smaller and denser and heated up to several thousand degrees, causing some of its elements to vaporize into gas.
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
PASSAGE 4 QUESTIONS 31 - 40
Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) is a method of producing electricity developed from the temperature difference that subsists between deep and shallow waters. It converts solar radiation to electric power. The system uses the ocean's natural thermal gradient to direct a power-producing cycle. To produce a significant amount of power, the temperature between warm water on the surface and deep cold water should differ by about 20 degrees Celsius. On average, 23 million square miles of tropical seas absorb an amount of solar radiation equal in heat content to about 250 million barrels of oil. If less than one tenth of this could be converted into electric power, it would provide more than 20 times the total amount of electricity utilized in America on any given day.
Oceans are a huge renewable resource with the possibility of producing millions of watts of electric power. Some experts think the cold, deep seawater that is used in the OTEC process is rich in nutrients and, therefore, can be used to culture marine and plant life on shore or on land.
There are certain conditions which have to be met to enable OTEC to work. First, commercial OTEC facilities must be located in an environment that is stable enough for efficient system operation. This means that they must be built on land or submerged on the continental shelf. In addition, the natural ocean thermal gradient necessary for OTEC operation is generally found between latitudes 20°N and 20°S. The temperature of the surface water must differ from that of deep water and allowances should be made for a wide-open space. Tropical islands meet the requirements for a wide space, so they are areas for OTEC development. Land-based facilities offer advantages. For example, plants do not require extensive maintenance, and they can be installed in sheltered areas, safe from storms and general bad weather. Land-based sites allow OTEC plants to function with related industries.
Thermal energy from the ocean was first proposed as far back as 1881. However, it wasn't until 1930 that a system was built, producing 22kW of electricity. Another was constructed sometime later, but it was destroyed by waves. In 1980, the U.S department of energy built a site for OTEC heat exchangers on board a navy ship. Tests revealed that OTEC systems are able to function on slow moving ships and are of little consequence to the surrounding marine environment.
In 1981, Japan established a closed-cycle plant in the Pacific Ocean, producing 40,000 watts of electricity. In May 1993, another 50,000 watts of electricity was produced. However, it was an impractical energy source as the materials used were expensive. Currently, scientists are continuing to develop more cost effective and open-cycle OTEC systems. An integrated OTEC system can help create harmonious, self-sustaining island communities, independent of imported fossil fuels and their associated costs.
Tidal energy is another form of ocean energy caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and sun, and the rotation of the Earth. When tides come into shore, they can be trapped in reservoirs behind dams. Then when the tide lowers, the water behind the dam can be released, functioning similarly to a hydroelectric power plant. Tidal dams can change the tidal level in the local basin, affecting the navigation. The prime disadvantage is the effect a tidal station has on plants and animals. However, tidal fences, which are also used to channel the energy of tides, have less environmental impact than traditional sources of power such as fossil fuels or nuclear power, and are cheaper to install.
Turbines are devices with blades attached to a central rod that spin when a force hits the blades. [A] This spinning motion is extremely practical. The first turbine used was the undershot waterwheel, probably the oldest type of waterwheel dating back over 2,000 years. [B] Waterwheels and windmills were the first turbines; their wooden blades captured the power of wind or rivers to lift water for irrigation or to rotate huge stones to grind grain. [C] It wasn't until the 1880s, when the generator was first invented, that people began using turbines to produce electricity. [D]
Question 11
According to paragraph 1, what does OTEC use to produce power?
- The wave energy stored in the Earth's oceans
- The salt in the ocean
- The seawater temperature differences
- The tropical oceans' warm surface water
Question 12
The word "absorb" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- take in
- work together with
- reject
- make efficient
Question 13
The word "converted" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- consumed
- released
- used
- transformed
Question 14
In paragraph 3, the author mentions "The temperature of the surface water" as an example of _______.
- the requirements for the perfect OTEC settlement
- the specific requirements needed for OTEC to work
- the careful calculations and considerations needed in OTEC
- why water based programs are always superior to land-based ones
Question 15
According to paragraph 5, what does the author say was the main problem with the closed cycle plant in the Pacific Ocean?
- It was damaged by the salt water.
- It was environmentally damaging to the area.
- It could not generate electricity without pollution.
- The overall cost was far too high to be economically feasible.
Question 16
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the fifth paragraph?
- The beauty of the OTEC system is that it allows islands to be self-sufficient.
- The OTEC system could prove to lead the world in an age of codependency.
- A completely autonomous, cost effective society could be created by the system.
- The system could mean that societies are no longer dependent on fossil fuels.
Question 17
According to paragraph 6, which of the following is true about tidal energy?
- It is derived from the hydrological climate cycle.
- It is based on the small fluctuation of tide in a given area.
- It has no environmental and ecological effects on local inhabitants.
- It needs a barrage to convert tidal energy into electricity.
Question 18
The word "practical" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- unnecessary
- swift
- useful
- sensitive
Question 19
The following are all characteristics of the OTEC system EXCEPT _______.
- It seeks to harness the temperature difference.
- It is not technically feasible for the production of base load electricity.
- It can be practiced on slow moving ships.
- It can create self-sufficient systems.
Question 20
Look at the four squares [A], [B], [C], [D] in the last paragraph. Where would the following sentence best fit?
It was turned by water flowing under the wheel and striking the boards.
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần nỗ lực thêm: Bạn cần rèn luyện thêm kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích thông tin. Hãy bắt đầu với các đoạn văn ngắn và các dạng câu hỏi cơ bản.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
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Kết quả: [[score]]/20
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LISTENING TEST 7
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording. There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only.
Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
PART 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 8
Directions: There are eight questions in this part. For each question there are four options and a short recording. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D. You now have 45 seconds to look through the questions and the options in each question.
1. When is the man's appointment?
- Wednesday
- Thursday
- Friday
- Tuesday
2. Which is the aunt's postcard?
- A pretty village right by the sea
- Big trees
- A pretty village behind the tall trees
- A pretty village on the hills
3. What time will the plane to Milan leave?
- 01:00
- 07:15
- 08:15
- 06:15
4. Which present has the girl bought her mother?
- Earrings
- Music CD
- Pen
- Notebook
5. What time will the pie be ready?
- Four fifteen
- Five o'clock
- Twenty past five
- Fifty past four
6. What time is the swimming lesson today?
- Half past four
- Fifteen to five
- Fifteen past five
- Four thirty
7. Which subject does the boy like best?
- Information technology
- Geography
- Sports
- Design
8. Which T-shirt does the boy decide to buy?
- A short-sleeved T-shirt with round neck
- A V-neck black T-shirt
- A long-sleeved T-shirt
- A sleeveless white T-shirt
PART 2 QUESTIONS 9 - 20
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation.
9. What is Kate's health problem?
- She has coughs.
- She has headache.
- She has toothache.
- She has stomach ache.
10. How does Kate's problem affect her classmates?
- It makes them angry.
- It makes them annoyed.
- It makes them happy.
- It makes them excited.
11. What problem did Kate have last year?
- She had coughs.
- She had headache.
- She fell off her bike.
- She had stomach ache.
12. What problem does Kate have now?
- She has backache.
- She has headache.
- She has toothache.
- She has temperature.
Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation.
13. Why does the man want to go out?
- He feels bored staying at home.
- He feels safe staying at home.
- He feels cold staying at home.
- He feels hot staying at home.
14. Why does the woman want to stay at home?
- She has a cough.
- She feels tired.
- She has a toothache.
- She has a stomach ache.
15. Why doesn't the woman want to watch the Italian film?
- She is short of money.
- She is serious about it.
- She's afraid she will fall asleep watching it.
- She has a stomach ache.
16. Why doesn't the woman want to watch a Robert de Niro's?
- She feels too busy to watch it.
- She feels too serious to watch it.
- She doesn't want to watch it the third time.
- She doesn't want to watch it the second time.
Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation.
17. What does the girl think about a good holiday?
- It may be cheap.
- It may be very cheap.
- It may be expensive.
- It may be very expensive.
18. Why doesn't the boy want to walk?
- He feels too hot to do it.
- He finds it hard to do it.
- He doesn't like hard work.
- He doesn't like the sounds of people walking.
19. What does the girl think about the food in Youth Hostels?
- It is comfortable.
- It is good.
- It is not good.
- It is clean and cheap.
20. What does the boy decide to do in the end?
- Go home
- Leave home
- Sell his home
- Enjoy his holiday home
PART 3 QUESTIONS 21 - 35
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures. The talks or lectures will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk or lecture. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following talk.
21. Why did the speaker have to help her mother with the shopping?
- There were no Vietnamese people living near her.
- There were no Vietnamese working in the stores.
- There wasn't always someone to go shopping with her.
- Her mother could speak a little English.
22. Why did her father find working in a factory difficult?
- He couldn't speak any English.
- He didn't have many friends there.
- He had had a much better job in Viet Nam.
- He couldn't get used to the working style.
23. Why are the speaker and her brother more fortunate than their sisters?
- They did not need extra English lessons.
- They look more American.
- They speak with American accents.
- They quickly adopted the way of life.
24. What has the speaker forgotten about life in Viet Nam?
- Living close to other people
- The warm weather
- Wearing traditional clothes
- Traditional food
25. Why does she find it difficult to invite friends to her home?
- Her parents do not have much money.
- Her parents haven't adopted an American way of life.
- Her parents only know how to cook Vietnamese food.
- Her parents do not speak English well.
Questions 26 to 30 refer to the following lecture.
26. What happened in American schools before 1972?
- Girls didn't go to school.
- Every classroom was a mix of boys and girls.
- Boys could learn what they wanted.
- They didn't teach girls some subjects.
27. What is the reason that most American schools have mixed classes?
- Scientists said that it was the best thing.
- Teachers did not want to teach single-gender classes.
- A law gave girls an equal chance to learn.
- Boys and girls behave better in such classes.
28. Why might girls not get a chance to talk much in a class with boys?
- The teacher doesn't ask them questions.
- Boys are louder and often talk first.
- Boys know the correct answers.
- Girls are often shy.
29. What is NOT the reason that some schools are reconsidering separating classes?
- They prefer the old teaching styles.
- Boys learn differently than girls.
- Boys and girls can bother each other.
- Boys and girls like different things.
30. Which is one class that is not mentioned as being separated?
- Math
- Social Studies
- Science
- Physical Education
Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following talk.
31. Who is listening to the orientation talk?
- The director of international students
- New international students
- The teachers of international department
- All first-year students in the college
32. What is the purpose of this talk?
- To introduce the director for international student affairs
- To deal with all international students' problems
- To inform the importance of using English in class
- To introduce common problems in non-verbal communication
33. According to the speaker, what is body language?
- It's the use of verb tenses and modals.
- It's the way to ask for directions.
- It's the language used in class only.
- It's the language of movements and facial expressions.
34. In American culture, _______.
- eye contact is the same as most cultures
- making eye contact is a sign of disrespect
- people don't look in others' eyes while talking
- eye contact is considered as a sign of honesty
35. According to the speaker, what is TRUE about handshakes in American Culture?
- A handshake shouldn't be too strong.
- Handshakes are not common.
- Handshakes need to be firm.
- Shaking hands is not important.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Cần cố gắng: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng nghe cơ bản. Hãy tập trung nghe các đoạn hội thoại ngắn và làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc nhận biết các thông tin gây nhiễu và luyện tập nghe các bài nói dài hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng nghe hiểu rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
READING TEST 8
PASSAGE 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 10
Two-thirds of Chinese men start to smoke before the age of 20, a new study has found. It also found that half of those men will eventually be killed by tobacco.
The research, published in the Lancet medical journal, was carried out by scientists from Oxford University, the Chinese Academy of Medical Sciences and the Chinese Center for Disease Control. The researchers studied the smoking habits of 200,000 men in China for 15 years.
“About two-thirds of the young men in China start to smoke, mostly before they are 20,” said one of the report's authors, Prof Richard Peto. "And about half of all of those men will be killed by tobacco unless they stop permanently.”
The study found that the number of deaths from smoking, which is now one million every year, will reach two million by 2030 if current trends continue.
China is the world's largest consumer of tobacco, with more than 300 million smokers.
In many parts of China, it is still the norm for men to smoke. Cigarettes are often handed around at social occasions as a way of being friendly, or after a meal.
The habit is less common among women. In 2010, just 2.4% of Chinese women smoked.
But the study points to a lack of awareness of the dangers of smoking.
According to the World Health Organization, only one-quarter of Chinese adults can list the specific health effects of smoking. "The key to stopping this huge wave of deaths is to stop the young people from starting," Prof Peto told the BBC. "It's difficult for people who are already addicted to stop. But if they see the reason why, then it is possible for some.”
While smoking rates have fallen in developed countries - to less than one in five in the US - they have risen in China, as cigarettes have become more available and consumers have become richer.
Authorities have shown concern over the rise, with Beijing even introducing a public smoking ban. But efforts have been hampered by the habit's popularity, and its usefulness as a source of tax - the government collects about 428 billion yuan (£ 44 billion, $ 67 billion) in tobacco taxes each year.
Globally, tobacco kills up to half of its users, according to the World Health Organization.
Question 1
_______ of Chinese men start to smoke before the age of 20.
- One-third
- Two-thirds
- Half
- All
Question 2
What does the word "those men" in paragraph 2 refer to?
- Men who smoke under the age of 20
- Men who smoke above the age of 20
- Men who give up smoking
- Men who smoke in public
Question 3
By 2030, how many men in China may die from smoking every year?
- One million
- Two million
- Three million
- Four million
Question 4
In many areas of China, when do men usually smoke?
- Before a meal
- After a meal
- Before they go to sleep
- When they get up
Question 5
According to WHO, only _______ of Chinese adults can list the bad effects of smoking.
- One-third
- One-fourth
- One-fifth
- Half
Question 6
"Beijing" in paragraph 10 refers to _______.
- China
- The city of Beijing
- The Chinese government
- People who live in Beijing
Question 7
What is Richard Peto's attitude toward smoking in China?
- He doesn't believe that people will give up smoking.
- He is disappointed with the Chinese government.
- He thinks that people possibly stop smoking if they see reasons.
- He is sure about the rise of future deaths in China.
Question 8
Which of the following words does the word "hamper" have closest meaning to?
- Basket
- Assist
- Prohibit
- Restrict
Question 9
What is the writer's purpose?
- To argue over smoking policy in China
- To support smoking in China
- To warn and prevent smoking in China
- To report the result of a research paper
Question 10
What does the writer imply about the Chinese government?
- They do not want to stop people from smoking
- They have tried to stop people from smoking in public but with little success.
- They have tried to close tobacco companies.
- They do not care about smoking.
PASSAGE 2 QUESTIONS 11 - 20
The evidence that humans are causing global warming is strong, but the question of what to do about it remains controversial. Economics, sociology, and politics are all important factors in planning for the future.
Even if we stopped emitting greenhouse gases (GHGs) today, the Earth would still warm by another degree Fahrenheit or so. But what we do from today forward makes a big difference. Depending on our choices, scientists predict that the Earth could eventually warm by as little as 2.5 degrees or as much as 10 degrees Fahrenheit.
A commonly cited goal is to stabilize GHG concentrations around 450-550 parts per million (ppm), or about twice pre-industrial levels. This is the point at which many believe the most damaging impacts of climate change can be avoided. Current concentrations are about 380 ppm, which means there isn't much time to lose. According to the IPCC, we'd have to reduce GHG emissions by 50% to 80% of what they're on track to be in the next century to reach this level.
Is this possible?
Many people and governments are already working hard to cut greenhouse gases, and everyone can help.
Researchers Stephen Pacala and Robert Socolow at Princeton University have suggested one approach that they call "stabilization wedges". This means reducing GHG emissions from a variety of sources with technologies available in the next few decades, rather than relying on an enormous change in a single area. They suggest 7 wedges that could each reduce emissions, and all of them together could hold emissions at approximately current levels for the next 50 years, putting us on a potential path to stabilize around 500 ppm.
There are many possible wedges, including improvements to energy efficiency and vehicle fuel economy (so less energy has to be produced), and increases in wind and solar power, hydrogen produced from renewable sources, biofuels (produced from crops), natural gas, and nuclear power. There is also the potential to capture the carbon dioxide emitted from fossil fuels and store it underground - a process called "carbon sequestration".
In addition to reducing the gases we emit to the atmosphere, we can also increase the amount of gases we take out of the atmosphere. Plants and trees absorb CO2 as they grow, "sequestering" carbon naturally. Increasing forestlands and making changes to the way we farm could increase the amount of carbon we're storing.
Some of these technologies have drawbacks, and different communities will make different decisions about how to power their lives, but the good news is that there are a variety of options to put us on a path toward a stable climate.
Question 11
The word "we" in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
- humans
- economists, sociologists, and politicians
- animals
- scientists
Question 12
According to paragraph 2, how many degrees Fahrenheit could the Earth warm up?
- 2.5
- 2.5 or 10
- 10
- From 2.5 to 10
Question 13
According to paragraph 3, why should we stabilize GHG concentrations around 450-550 parts per million?
- To avoid the most serious effects of climate change
- To avoid all damaging impacts of climate change
- To mend the most damaging impacts of climate change
- To stop climate change
Question 14
What does "which" in paragraph 3 refer to?
- Current concentrations
- That current concentrations are about 380 ppm
- 380 ppm
- Ppm
Question 15
Why does the author mention Stephen Pacala and Robert Socolow?
- To introduce two researchers in the field
- To proves that researchers are working to reduce GHG emission
- To introduce one way to reduce GHG emission
- To introduce Princeton University
Question 16
What stabilization wedges are NOT mentioned in the passage?
- Create environment-friendly materials
- Capture and store carbon dioxide underground
- Increase the use of renewable energy
- Grow more trees
Question 17
What does "them" refer to?
- Researchers
- Humans
- Renewable resources
- Wedges
Question 18
What is the best title for this passage?
- Arguments over Global Warming
- Global Warming and its Causes
- Global Warming Solutions
- Global Warming's Effect on Earth
Question 19
"Sequestering" has the closest meaning to _______.
- absorb
- isolate
- release
- emit
Question 20
Why does the writer mention "drawbacks" in the last paragraph?
- To introduce the disadvantages of solutions in the following paragraph
- To emphasize the disadvantages of the solutions in the previous paragraph
- To recommend readers not to use the solutions
- To emphasize the advantages of the solutions in different contexts
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy bắt đầu bằng việc đọc các đoạn văn ngắn và tập trung vào việc xác định ý chính.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc hiểu ổn. Để tiến bộ hơn, hãy luyện tập tìm kiếm thông tin chi tiết và suy luận ý của tác giả.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất tốt. Bạn đã sẵn sàng để chinh phục các bài đọc khó hơn.
PASSAGE 1 (QUESTIONS 1 - 10)
Art communicates to us primarily through our eyes. We look at art, and we try to find some meaning in the experience. If we are to begin to think about art more seriously, we might do well to become more aware of the process of seeing itself.
Science tells us that seeing is a mode of perception, or the recognition and interpretation of sensory data - in other words, how information comes in our senses, and what we make of it. In visual perception, our eyes take in information in the form of light patterns; the brain processes these patterns to give them meaning. The mechanics of perception work much the same way for everyone, yet in a given situation we do not all see the same things.
We can take great pleasure in merely looking at art, just as we take pleasure in the view of a distant mountain range or watching the sun set over the ocean. But art, unlike nature, is a human creation. It is one of the many ways we express ourselves and attempt to communicate. A work of art is the product of human intelligence, and we can meet it with our own intelligence on equal footing. This is where study comes in.
The understanding of process - the how - often contributes quite a lot to our appreciation of art. If you understand why painting in watercolor may be different from painting in oil, why clay responds differently to the artist's hands than does wood or glass - you will have a richer appreciation of the artist's expression.
Knowing the place of a work of art in history - what went before and came after - can also deepen your understanding. Artists learn to make art by studying the achievements of the past and observing the efforts of their contemporaries. They adapt ideas to serve their own needs and then bequeath those ideas to future generations of artists. For example, Matisse assumed that his audience would know that Venus was the ancient Roman goddess of love. But he also hoped that they would be familiar with one Venus in particular, a famous Greek statue known as the Venus de Milo.
An artist may create a specific work for any of a thousand reasons. An awareness of the why may give some insight as well. Looking at Van Gogh's "The Starry Night", it might help you know that Van Gogh was intrigued by the belief that people journeyed to a star after their death, and that there they continued their lives. "Just as we take the train to get to Tarascon or Rouen", he wrote in a letter, "we take death to reach a star." This knowledge might help you understand why Van Gogh felt so strongly about the night sky, and what his painting might have meant to him.
But no matter how much you study, Van Gogh's painting will never mean for you exactly what it meant for him, nor should it. Great works of art hold many meanings. The greatest of them seem to speak anew to each generation and to each attentive observer. The most important thing is that they mean something to you, that your own experiences, thoughts, and emotions find a place in them.
Question 1
According to paragraph 2, the process of visual perception _______
- is not the same for all people
- begins with patterns of light
- is not very scientific
- requires other senses to function
Question 2
What did Matisse reinterpret?
- A goddess from mythology
- A painting by another artist
- An ancient sculpture
- A man in history
Question 3
The word "them" in the last paragraph refers to _______
- Each attentive observer
- Thoughts and emotions
- A lifetime of experiences
- Great works of art
Question 4
The word "bequeath" in the fifth paragraph is closest in meaning to _______
- make out
- pass on
- look over
- take in
Question 5
The author mentions all of the following ways to enhance the appreciation of art EXCEPT _______.
- understanding the artistic process
- becoming familiar with the history
- experiencing the art by copying
- knowing about the life of the artist
Question 6
What is the main topic of this passage?
- Visual perception of sensory material
- The historical context for artistic expression
- Studying Van Gogh's "The Starry Night"
- The appreciation of works of art
Question 7
Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted sentence in the second paragraph?
- We see images differently because of the mode of perception.
- Although we see images differently, the mode of perception is similar.
- Since the mode of perception is similar, we see images in the same way.
- When the mode of perception is the same, we see the same images.
Question 8
Why might Van Gogh have painted "The Starry Night"?
- To symbolize the journey of life after death
- To create a dramatic contrast with the sky
- To place a strong image in the foreground
- To include nature from his early experience
Question 9
The word "intrigued" in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to _______
- very pleased
- very confused
- very interested
- very surprised
Question 10
What can be inferred from the last paragraph?
- Greatest artworks are impossible to understand.
- The author shows negative feelings toward contemporary art.
- People need knowledge to understand art.
- What we see in art is determined by our emotions, experiences, and thoughts.
PASSAGE 2 (QUESTIONS 11 - 20)
Antibiotics block the life cycle of bacteria that invade the human body. The first of these antibiotics, penicillin, works by blocking the molecules that construct the cell walls of particular bacteria. The bacteria, with incomplete cell walls, are not able to reproduce.
When penicillin was introduced during World War II, it was truly a "miracle drug". Until that time, anyone who was cut or wounded stood a great risk of infection. Once penicillin became available, the situation changed. Wounded soldiers, children with ear infections, and many others began to benefit from the ability to block the growth of bacteria.
While humanity may have won that particular battle against bacteria, the war is far from over. The reason is that in any bacterial population, there are bound to be a few bacteria that, for one reason or another, are not affected by a particular antibiotic. For example, they may have a slightly differently shaped enzyme that builds cell walls, so that penicillin will not fit onto that particular shape of the enzyme. These bacteria will not be affected by that particular drug.
For that small group, the antibiotic is a real godsend. It doesn't affect them, but it does wipe out all of their competition. They are thus free to multiply, and, over time, all of the bacteria will have whatever properties that made those individuals resistant.
Traditionally, medical scientists have dealt with this phenomenon by developing a large number of antibiotics, each of which intervenes in the bacterial life cycle in a slightly different way.
Consequently, if you happen to have a bacterium that is resistant to one antibiotic, probably it will succumb to the action of another. You may, in fact, have had the experience of going to a doctor with an infection, being given an antibiotic, and then finding that it didn't work. In all likelihood, all your doctor had to do then was prescribe a different antibiotic and everything was fine.
The problem is that as time has passed, more and more bacteria have become resistant to antibiotics. In fact, currently, there is one strain of bacteria - Staphylococcus - that is resistant to every commercially available antibiotic except one, and in 1996, a bacterium with lowered resistance to that last antibiotic appeared in Japan.
The appearance of drug-resistant bacteria is not particularly surprising; in fact, it probably should have been anticipated. Nevertheless, in the late 1980s, there was a general sense of complacency among scientists on the antibiotic question. Little profit was to be made by developing the one-hundred-and-first antibiotic. Drug companies concentrated their efforts on other areas. Therefore, a gap developed between the production of new antibiotics and the development of resistance among bacteria.
By the early 1990s, this gap was recognized and highlighted in several national news magazines. More companies returned to develop new kinds of antibiotics, and currently, a number are undergoing clinical trials. By early in the twenty-first century, some of these new drugs will start to come on the market, and the problem will be "solved", at least for the moment.
Additional research will focus on the processes by which cells repair the constant damage to DNA, but the computer design of new drugs, the development of new antibiotics, and techniques to combat bacteria should remain a top priority.
Question 11
How do antibiotics treat infections?
- They interfere with the reproductive cycle of bacteria.
- They construct cell walls to resist bacteria.
- They inject enzymes that explode in affected cells.
- They increase the mitosis of healthy cells.
Question 12
The word "them" in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
- whatever properties
- resistant bacteria
- their competition
- those individuals
Question 13
The word "anticipated" in the eighth paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- predicted
- concealed
- investigated
- disregarded
Question 14
Which of the following best expresses the main idea of this passage?
- The "miracle drug" penicillin
- Drug-resistant bacteria
- Staphylococcus infections
- Gene therapy treatments
Question 15
According to paragraph 4, why do some bacteria benefit from antibiotics?
- The antibiotic eliminates competing bacteria, allowing resistant bacteria to reproduce.
- The resistant bacteria compete with the antibiotic, and the bacteria become stronger.
- The competition helps the resistant bacteria to multiply by reproducing with the resistant type.
- The properties of the antibiotic are acquired by the bacteria, making it resistant to the competition.
Question 16
The word "complacency" in the eighth paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- consensus of agreement
- fear of consequences
- lack of concern
- awareness of potential
Question 17
Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted sentence in the third paragraph?
- Some antibiotics affect a population of bacteria more efficiently than others.
- There are several reasons why some bacteria do not respond to most antibiotics
- The effect of antibiotics on bacteria is to bind them together into one population.
- A small number of bacteria in any sample will probably be resistant to a specific antibiotic.
Question 18
The author mentions all of the following reasons for drug resistant bacteria to appear EXCEPT _______.
- there was not enough profit incentive for companies to continue developing new antibiotics
- statistically, some drug-resistant bacteria will occur naturally in any large population of bacteria
- the newer antibiotics were not as strong and effective as the original penicillin-based drugs
- competing bacteria are destroyed by antibiotics, allowing resistant bacteria to prosper
Question 19
It can be inferred from the passage that _______.
- research to develop new antibiotics will not be necessary in the future
- the scientific community was not surprised by the resistant strains of bacteria
- antibiotics are not very expensive when they are made available commercially
- it takes years for a new drug to be made available commercially for consumers
Question 20
Which of the following statements is NOT a main idea of the passage?
- Many strains of bacteria have become resistant to the antibiotics currently available.
- Funding for the production of new antibiotics has been allocated to drug companies.
- The first antibiotics were very effective in blocking the reproduction of bacteria.
- New antibiotics are being developed to combat bacteria that resist the older antibiotics.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần ôn tập thêm: Bạn cần củng cố thêm kỹ năng đọc hiểu chi tiết và suy luận từ thông tin trong bài.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã nắm được các ý chính của đoạn văn. Hãy luyện tập thêm để tăng tốc độ và độ chính xác.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất tốt. Bạn có thể dễ dàng phân tích và nắm bắt các thông tin phức tạp.
LISTENING TEST 8
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording. There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only.
Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
PART 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 8
Directions: There are eight questions in this part. For each question there are four options and a short recording. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D. You now have 45 seconds to look through the questions and the options in each question.
Câu 1: What colour is Mary's coat?
- Yellow
- Blue
- Brown
- Black
Câu 2: What did the woman repair?
- Chair
- Shelf
- Desk
- Bed
Câu 3: What are they going to buy for Pam?
- A book
- A plant
- Some chocolates
- Candies
Câu 4: What has the girl lost?
- Mobile phone
- Purse
- Pen
- Bag
Câu 5: Which sport will the boy do soon at the centre?
- Waterskiing
- Diving
- Sailing
- Swimming
Câu 6: Who lives with Josh in his house?
- His grandmother
- His father
- His sister
- His mother
Câu 7: What will the girl take with her on holiday?
- Suitcase
- Sports bag
- Backpack
- Overhead bag
Câu 8: Where do the boys decide to go?
- Cinema
- Game store
- Park
- Library
PART 2 QUESTIONS 9 - 20
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 9 - 12 refer to the following conversation.
Câu 9: Where was Geoff Thompson born?
- In London
- In the North of England
- In the South of London
- In Britain
Câu 10: How did he know about karate?
- He discovered karate by himself.
- He's interested in karate during a school visit.
- His friend introduced it to him.
- He knew it when moving to London.
Câu 11: When did he take part in the World Championships in Taiwan?
- In 1972
- In 1980
- In 1982
- After starting training with a British coach
Câu 12: How many times has he won the World Champion?
- Two times
- Three times
- Four times
- Five times
Questions 13 - 16 refer to the following conversation.
Câu 13: Which position does this hotel need?
- A temporary staff
- A stable staff
- A part-time receptionist
- A full-time waiter
Câu 14: What about the hour of work?
- There are two shifts and two days off.
- There are two shifts and one day off.
- There's a day shift from 7 to 2 and a late shift from 4 till 11.
- There is only an afternoon shift.
Câu 15: What does the woman mention about the uniform?
- It's prepared by the hotel.
- He needs to wear dark clothes.
- He needs a white shirt and dark trousers.
- He needs to wear a uniform five days a week.
Câu 16: When does he start his job?
- At the end of May
- On the 10th of May
- On the 10th of June
- On the 28th of June
Questions 17 - 20 refer to the following conversation.
Câu 17: What does the man plan to write his paper on?
- The preservation of old books
- The local coal industry
- The famous archives librarian
- The collection of rare books
Câu 18: What security procedures does the librarian tell the man he must follow?
- Show her his note cards before leaving
- Show her his ID card
- Pay a fee
- Allow his ID card to be copied; sign in and out of the archives room
Câu 19: Why did the librarian mention the age of the books?
- They need to be handled with gloves.
- The man can only look at photographs of them.
- They were added to the collection recently.
- They are value books.
Câu 20: How did the man collect his needed information about his paper?
- He took a picture.
- He gets the scanned images.
- He could just look for them.
- He photocopied the books.
PART 3 QUESTIONS 21 - 35
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures. The talks or lectures will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk or lecture. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 21 - 25 refer to the following talk.
Câu 21: Why does the presenter not wear a suit?
- He is not an important person.
- He wants to talk about different fashion trends.
- The presentation is not formal.
- He works for a fashion company.
Câu 22: According to the speaker, which statement is TRUE?
- It's important to look casually dressed in public.
- A suit is necessary when meeting clients.
- Wearing shorts is OK sometimes.
- Nobody can describe the way he's dressed.
Câu 23: What does the phrase "Dress-down Fridays" mean?
- Employees must wear fashionable clothes on Fridays.
- Employees can wear anything they want on Fridays.
- Employees are allowed to wear informal clothes on Fridays.
- Employees are required to wear special clothes on Fridays.
Câu 24: According to the speaker, who may be the most informal dressers?
- People working in IT
- People working in banks
- People working in customer services
- People working with clients
Câu 25: How does a customer feel about a man in uniform?
- Reliable
- Recognized
- Expertised
- Reassured
Questions 26 - 30 refer to the following talk.
Câu 26: How many hours of sleep do experts suggest for kids?
- Ten
- About fifteen
- 1,400
- 70
Câu 27: According to the speaker, why is sleep important for the brain?
- Sleep generates dreams so the brain can relax.
- Brain can rest in a sleep.
- Sleep can save energy for the brain.
- Sleep improves the effectiveness of the brain.
Câu 28: Why don't the students learn well when they are tired?
- They can't finish their homework.
- They can't deal with troubles in class.
- They get very excited.
- They can't pay attention very well.
Câu 29: Which is NOT a reason for poor sleep?
- Drinking soda
- Watching TV
- Staying up late
- Reading a book
Câu 30: What should students try to do each night?
- Watch a scary movie
- Drink some hot tea
- Go to bed at a regular time
- Relax with a TV show
Questions 31 - 35 refer to the following lecture.
Câu 31: Which is NOT the shape of the northern lights?
- A straight line
- A curved line
- A round shape
- An oval shape
Câu 32: What does "aurora borealis" exactly mean?
- Northern lights
- Northern dawn
- Northern sky
- Early morning lights
Câu 33: Where is the best place to see the northern lights?
- The northernmost point of Earth
- The north of Poland
- Anywhere in Scandinavian countries
- Most parts of the world
Câu 34: What is one of the stories developed by people before modern science?
- The lights were caused by foxes.
- The lights were the dance of animals.
- The lights appeared when people.
- The lights came from fires of northern gods.
Câu 35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this talk?
- A description of the lights
- The scientific explanation for the lights
- The discovery of the lights
- Beliefs about the lights
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Dưới trung bình: Bạn cần luyện tập thêm kỹ năng nghe hiểu các đoạn hội thoại và bài giảng ngắn. Hãy chú ý đến các từ khóa và ý chính.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Khá: Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu tốt. Để cải thiện, hãy tập trung vào việc suy luận ý của người nói và chú ý hơn đến các chi tiết nhỏ.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Tốt: Rất tốt! Kỹ năng nghe của bạn vững vàng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ và thử thách bản thân với các bài nghe có độ khó cao hơn.
READING TEST 8
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what it is stated or implied in that passage.
Time allowance: You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 10
DOCTORS TREAT PATIENTS FOR FREE AT CLINIC IN HA NOI
For more than 20 years, Dang Thi Nhan, 67, has been waking up about 30 minutes earlier each day to bake cakes or prepare tea for two retired doctors in a clinic near her house in Hanoi's Giap Bat ward. That is all Nhan can offer as thanks to doctors who provide free health checks for herself, her paralysed husband and their 43-year-old disabled son. "If one day they cannot take care of themselves and need someone to look after them, I will do it voluntarily till the day they are gone," Nhan said.
The small clinic, situated on Kim Dong Street, has become familiar to many people in Ha Noi. It was established in 1992 by Dr. Truong Thi Hoi To, 84, a former principal of Nam Dinh Medical College, Le Thi Soc, 87, a retired nurse from Saint Paul Municipal Hospital, and Le Thanh Thuoc, the late deputy director of the Viet Nam National Cancer Hospital, who died last year. The clinic used to open every Monday and Thursday. However, after doctor Thuoc died, and due to the deteriorating health of the two other medics, the clinic now only opens on Monday mornings at 8 am. Patients not only receive health checks, but they also receive free medicine. [A]
Since 2014, the clinic has treated about 8,500 patients, according to Giap Bat ward's Red Cross Association. On its first days, the clinic faced numerous difficulties due to lack of money. Mrs. To, founder of the clinic, had to spend her own pension and encourage her children and relatives to donate money to purchase medical equipment and medicine. The clinic also had to relocate seven times as To and her co-workers could not afford high rents. Despite these difficulties, they never thought of giving up. "Being able to help my patients brings me unspeakable joy. This is also my life target. It warms my heart to see the happy faces of the patients," To said. [B]
Tran Thi Toan, 64, a patient from Nam Dinh Province, now works as a servant in Ha Noi. She is grateful to doctor To and nurse Soc not just for the free treatment, but for their caring manner. Toan said: "They give me meticulous treatment and clear, detailed instruction as well as advise me on a healthy and happy lifestyle". Toan feels shy about her job, so the doctors' care and compassionate attitude have become her inspiration in life. [C]
To the doctors, the most precious thing they receive from their patients is confidence in their skills, which can only be achieved through ethics and medical excellence. "The success of a doctor does not lie in how much money they earn, but how many people they help", Soc said. Sharing Soc's opinion, To said that "Medical practitioners should not consider their profession as a tool to get rich. They should not benefit from their patients' pain. Patients come first, not money." [D]
Question 1
How old was Dang Thi Nhan when she first started to bake cakes or prepare tea for the two doctors?
- 20
- 67
- 43
- 47
Question 2
The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
- two doctors
- husband and son
- health checks
- cakes
Question 3
The word "late" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
- last-minute
- behind
- delayed
- deceased
Question 4
The word "its" in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
- Red Cross Association
- the clinic
- medicine
- pension
Question 5
Who probably did not work in a hospital before retirement?
- Le Thi Soc
- Le Thanh Thuoc
- Truong Thi Hoi To
- All of them
Question 6
In which paragraph does the author mention about the bad health condition of the doctors at the clinic?
- Paragraph 1
- Paragraph 2
- Paragraph 3
- Paragraph 4
Question 7
The word "donate" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by _______.
- give
- take
- keep
- get
Question 8
What has helped Mrs. Tran Thi Toan gain confidence in her life?
- Her job as a servant
- Her gratitude to all doctors
- Her healthy and happy lifestyle
- Doctors' caring manner and free treatment at clinic
Question 9
Look at the four squares [...] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage. "They treat me as a close member of their family. There is no discrimination between the rich and the poor. Everyone is treated equally." She added. Where would the sentence best fit?
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
Question 10
The last paragraph indicates Mrs. Soc's opinion that a doctor is successful if _______.
- They earn a lot of money
- They are confident in his/her skills
- They help a lot of patients
- They benefit from their patient pain
PASSAGE 2 QUESTIONS 11 - 20
TO GET A JOB IN YOUR 50S, MAINTAIN FRIENDSHIPS IN YOUR 40S
We hear it all the time: People who are over 50 take longer to find jobs than younger people. Connie Wanberg, a professor at the Carlson School of Management at the University of Minnesota, had long heard gloom-and-doom stories to that effect, but she wondered how strong the data was to support them.
Very, as it turned out. According to a study by Professor Wanberg and others, job seekers over 50 were unemployed 5.8 weeks longer than those from the ages of 30 to 49. That number rose to 10.6 weeks when the comparison group was from 20 to 29. Professor Wanberg and three other researchers - Darla J. Hamann, Ruth Kanfer and Zhen Zhang - arrived at those numbers by analyzing and synthesizing hundreds of studies by economists, sociologists and psychologists.
But it is important not to jump to conclusions about the cause, Professor Wanberg said. "It's not very unusual for everybody to think that the reason for the difficulty in finding jobs at 50s is discrimination," she said. That can sometimes be the case, but the reality is that the behavior required to find work does not play to many older people's strengths. Once they become aware of this, they can act to compensate.
In their study, the researchers found that older people on average had smaller social networks than younger people, Professor Wanberg said. This is not necessarily bad - as we age, many of us find that the quality of our relationships is more important than the quantity. But in the job search process, the number of connections we maintain in our professional and personal networks is often critical.
As people age, they also tend to stay in the same job longer, consistent with a pattern of wanting to put down roots. During that time, the skills people have learned and the job search strategies they once used may become outdated - especially as technology evolves ever more quickly.
The cure for these drawbacks is fairly straightforward. Once you hit your early 40s, even if you are not looking for a job, work to learn new skills and stretch yourself, Professor Wanberg said. Also, keep your networks strong by staying in touch with former colleagues and classmates, along with current co-workers and clients you don't see regularly, she said.
Finding a job after 50 doesn't have to be as discouraging as it is often portrayed to be, Professor Wanberg said. Just recognize that some of the obstacles you face are inherent to the aging process, she said. She stressed that her findings reflected only averages and that individual behavior varies greatly. Certainly, many older people maintain wide social circles and often learn skills. But in general, older job seekers must take more steps to find employment than younger ones, she said.
Once older workers do find a new employer, they can use their knowledge, wisdom and emotional intelligence - qualities that older people often possess in abundance - to thrive in their new positions.
Question 11
The word "gloom-and-doom" in the first paragraph could be best replaced by _______.
- hopeless
- interesting
- cheerful
- strange
Question 12
According to the study, which age group has the least unemployed time?
- Less than 20
- From 20 to 29
- From 30 to 49
- Over 50
Question 13
Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted sentence in the third paragraph?
- People do not usually think about the cause of discrimination in finding jobs at 50s.
- People do not usually think that discrimination is the reason for the difficulty at 50s.
- People commonly believe that finding jobs at 50s causes discrimination.
- People commonly believe that discrimination makes finding jobs at 50s difficult.
Question 14
The word "their" in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
- the researchers
- older people
- social networks
- younger people
Question 15
The word "critical" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by _______.
- huge
- demanding
- trivial
- important
Question 16
What advice does Professor Wanberg give to over 50 year-old job seekers when they are still in their early 40s?
- Maintaining small but strong social networks
- Becoming aware of their strengths
- Learning new skills and keeping wide social circles
- Staying in the same job longer
Question 17
The word "these drawbacks" in paragraph 6 refers to _______.
- outdated skills and job search strategies
- small numbers of connection networks
- lost social circles with co-workers and clients
- low quality and small quantity of relationships
Question 18
Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
- Finding a job after 50 is not at all hopeless.
- Older people hardly learn new skills and maintain wide social networks.
- Older people often have many good qualities.
- Findings of the study does not hold true for all older people.
Question 19
Which of the following would best describe Professor Wanberg's attitude toward finding a job after 50?
- Hopeless
- Frustrated
- Optimistic
- Discouraging
Question 20
What is the purpose of this passage?
- To report the difficulties of finding jobs at 50s
- To discuss the advantages and disadvantages of 50 year-old job seekers
- To warn people against skipping jobs at later ages
- To raise awareness on the importance of maintaining social connections and learning new skills at early stages
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng đọc hiểu cơ bản. Hãy luyện tập đọc các đoạn văn ngắn và trả lời câu hỏi để cải thiện.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc nhận biết các thông tin chi tiết và suy luận từ đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích thông tin rất tốt. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này.
PASSAGE 3 QUESTIONS 1 - 10
MARY'S FIRST JOB
When I was just fifteen, my father purchased an old hotel in the country where we lived and decided to turn it into a luxury hotel. At the early stages of the hotel, he experimented with everything. None of us had ever worked in a hotel before, but my dad had a vision of what guests wanted. His standards were extremely high and he believed that to reach those standards the most important thing was to work.
For a month that summer I worked as a waitress at breakfast and dinner. As part of the job I had to lay the tables in the dining room beforehand and clean up afterwards. This gave me the middle of the day free for studying because my school report predictably had not lived up to my father's high expectations.
Like all the other waitresses, I was equipped with a neat uniform and told to treat the guests as though they were special visitors in my own home. Although I felt more like a stranger in theirs, I did not express my feelings. Instead, I concentrated on doing the job as well as, if not better than, the older girls.
In the kitchen I learned how to deal with Gordon, the chef, who I found rather daunting. He had an impressive chef's hat and a terrifying ability to lose his temper and get violent for no clear reason. I avoided close contact with him and always grabbed the dishes he gave me with a cold look on my face. Then, as I walked from the kitchen to the dining room, my cold expression used to change into a charming smile.
I found waiting at breakfast was more enjoyable than at dinner. The guests came wandering into the dining room from seven-thirty onwards, staring with pleasure at the view of the sea and the islands through the dining room window. I always made sure that everyone got their order quickly and enjoyed getting on well with the people at each table.
In the evenings it was funny how differently people behaved; they talked with louder, less friendly voices, and did not always return my smile. However, that all changed when Dad created a special role for me which improved my status considerably.
I started by making simple cakes for guests' picnics and soon progressed to more elaborate cakes for afternoon teas. I found that recipes were easy to follow and it was amusing to improvise. This led to a nightly event known as Mary's Sweet Trolley. I used to enter the dining room every evening pushing a trolley carrying an extraordinary collection of puddings, cakes and other desserts. Most of them were of my own invention, I had cooked them all myself, and some were undeniably strange.
Question 1: The word "it" in line 2 refers to _______.
- an old hotel
- the country
- a luxury hotel
- Mary's first job
Question 2: What did the people working at the hotel have in common?
- They knew what the guests expected.
- They shared all the jobs.
- They lacked experience.
- They enjoyed the work.
Question 3: Mary's working day was organized in order to give her _______.
- time for her schoolwork
- working experience
- time at midday to relax
- time to have lunch with her father
Question 4: The sentence "my school report predictably had not lived up to my father's high expectations" means:
- The school made a report about my expectations to my father.
- My father is not satisfied with my results at school.
- The report from school is highly predictable to my father.
- My father expects to receive the school report soon.
Question 5: What does the writer mean by "daunting" in paragraph 4?
- Disgusting
- Frightening
- Interesting
- Strange
Question 6: What did Mary do while she walked from the kitchen to the dining room?
- She smiled at Gordon in a friendly way.
- She avoided touching Gordon.
- She checked the food Gordon gave her.
- She started to look more friendly.
Question 7: Why did Mary enjoy serving breakfasts more than dinners?
- She enjoyed the view from the dining room while working.
- She had a better relationship with the guests.
- The guests were more punctual than at dinner.
- She worked more efficiently at breakfast.
Question 8: How did Mary's father improve her position in the hotel?
- He put her in charge of the restaurant.
- He asked her to provide entertainment for the guests.
- He made her responsible for part of dinner.
- He gave her a special uniform.
Question 9: What was special about the food on Mary's Sweet Trolley?
- Mary made it following traditional recipes.
- Mary made the same food for picnics.
- Mary and Gordon made it together.
- Mary made most of it without following recipes.
Question 10: What impression does Mary give of her job throughout the passage?
- It brought her closer to her father.
- It was sometimes uncomfortable.
- It was always enjoyable.
- It was quite easy to do.
PASSAGE 4 QUESTIONS 11 - 20
Potash (the old name for potassium carbonate) is one of the two alkalis (the other being soda, sodium carbonate) that were used from remote antiquity in the making of glass, and from the early Middle Ages in the making of soap: the former being the product of heating a mixture of alkali and sand, the latter a product of alkali and vegetable oil. Their importance in the communities of colonial North America need hardly be stressed.
Potash and soda are not interchangeable for all purposes, but for glass- or soap-making either would do. Soda was obtained largely from the ashes of certain Mediterranean sea plants, potash from those of inland vegetation. Hence potash was more familiar to the early European settlers of the North American continent.
The settlement at Jamestown in Virginia was in many ways a microcosm of the economy of colonial North America, and potash was one of its first concerns. It was required for the glassworks, the first factory in the British colonies, and was produced in sufficient quantity to permit the inclusion of potash in the first cargo shipped out of Jamestown. The second ship to arrive in the settlement from England included among its passengers experts in potash making.
The method of making potash was simple enough. Logs were piled up and burned in the open, and the ashes were collected. The ashes were placed in a barrel with holes in the bottom, and water was poured over them. The solution draining from the barrel was boiled down in iron kettles. The resulting mass was further heated to fuse the mass into what was called potash.
In North America, potash making quickly became an adjunct to the clearing of land for agriculture, for it was estimated that as much as half the cost of clearing land could be recovered by the sale of potash. Some potash was exported from Maine and New Hampshire in the seventeenth century, but the market turned out to be mainly domestic, consisting mostly of shipments from the northern to the southern colonies. For despite the beginning of the trade at Jamestown and such encouragements as a series of acts to encourage the making of potash, beginning in 1707 in South Carolina, the softwoods in the South proved to be poor sources of the substance.
Question 11: What aspect of potash does the passage mainly discuss?
- How it was made
- Its value as a product for export
- How it differs from other alkalis
- Its importance in colonial North America
Question 12: All of the following statements are true of both potash and soda EXCEPT _______.
- They are alkalis.
- They are made from sea plants.
- They are used in making soap.
- They are used in making glass.
Question 13: The phrase "the latter" in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
- alkali
- glass
- sand
- soap
Question 14: The word "stressed" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by _______.
- defined
- emphasized
- adjusted
- mentioned
Question 15: The word "interchangeable" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
- convenient
- identifiable
- equivalent
- advantageous
Question 16: It can be inferred from the passage that potash was more common than soda in colonial North America because _______.
- the materials needed for making soda were not readily available
- making potash required less time than making soda
- potash was better than soda for making glass and soap
- the colonial glassworks found soda more difficult to use
Question 17: According to paragraph 4, all of the following were needed for making potash EXCEPT _______.
- wood
- fire
- sand
- water
Question 18: The word "adjunct" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
- addition
- answer
- problem
- possibility
Question 19: According to the passage, a major benefit of making potash was that _______.
- it could be exported to Europe in exchange for other goods
- it helped finance the creation of farms
- it could be made with a variety of materials
- stimulated the development of new ways of glassmaking
Question 20: According to paragraph 5, the softwoods in the South posed which of the following problems for southern settlers?
- The softwoods were not very plentiful.
- The softwoods could not be used to build houses.
- The softwoods were not very marketable.
- The softwoods were not very useful for making potash.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy tập trung vào việc xác định ý chính của đoạn văn và tìm kiếm thông tin chi tiết.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc và hiểu tương đối tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy luyện tập phân tích các câu hỏi về từ vựng và suy luận.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích thông tin của bạn rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này.
LISTENING TEST 9
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording. There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only. Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
PART 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 8
Directions: There are eight questions in this part. For each question there are four options and a short recording. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D. You now have 45 seconds to look through the questions and the options in each question.
Question 1: What have they forgotten?
- A ticket
- A camera
- A passport
- A bag
Question 2: What time does the train go?
- 06.15
- 07.40
- 06.10
- 07.10
Question 3: How did the woman get to work?
- By bicycle
- By bus
- By car
- By train
Question 4: Where are the man's shoes?
- Under the chair
- By the television
- By the door with the other rubbish
- Under the table
Question 5: What will Paul get at the shop?
- Mushrooms
- Onions
- Carrots
- Red pepper
Question 6: How were they told to do their homework?
- Write it in the books
- Write it on paper
- Type it
- Email it
Question 7: What did Helen buy?
- Gloves
- A sweater
- Socks
- A hat
Question 8: How did the woman get to work today?
- By bus
- A neighbour offered her a lift
- By bike
- Walk
PART 2 QUESTIONS 9 - 20
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 9 - 12 refer to the following conversation.
Question 9: What hours does the speaker work on Monday?
- Noon to 6 P.M
- 8:15 A.M to 5 P.M
- 7 A.M to 12 P.M
- 5 P.M to 9 P.M
Question 10: On which two days does the speaker have the same schedule?
- Monday and Tuesday
- Wednesday and Thursday
- Tuesday and Thursday
- Thursday and Friday
Question 11: What is the main purpose of the speaker's talk?
- To discuss the importance of the job
- To compare the work of doctors and dentists
- to describe a typical week at work
- To explain the details of a day at work
Question 12: What does the speaker think of her work?
- She enjoys sleeping late every morning.
- It is difficult to describe her schedule.
- She enjoys helping the patients.
- It is too complicated to remember.
Questions 13 - 16 refer to the following conversation.
Question 13: According to the conversation, which item did the woman NOT purchase with her credit card?
- A digital camera
- A DVD player
- A TV
- A stereo
Question 14: What is one reason to explain why the woman obtained a student credit card?
- She wants to buy things at a discount using the card.
- She hopes to establish a good credit rating.
- She doesn't want to borrow from her parents.
- She can be financially independent.
Question 15: What does the woman imply about how she plans on resolving her credit card problems?
- She hopes that someone will give her the money.
- She plans on getting rid of her student credit cards.
- She'll get a part-time job.
- She is going to return the items she purchased on the card.
Question 16: What is the man going to do for the woman to help her manage her money?
- Help her find a better paying job to cover her expenses
- Teach her how to prepare a financial management plan
- Show her how she can apply for low-interest student credit cards
- Teach her how to shop wisely
Questions 17 - 20 refer to the following conversation.
Question 17: Why does the customer not buy the recommended sandwich at the beginning of the conversation?
- It is too expensive.
- It is not tasty.
- He is not interested in ordering a burger.
- He is afraid that the food will make him sick.
Question 18: How does the specialty drink get its name?
- It contains a wide range of ingredients.
- It is prepared in the kitchen sink.
- It contains chicken soup.
- It comes in a very large cup.
Question 19: Why was the man surprised by the price of his meal?
- He thought the drink should have been included.
- He felt the meal was way overpriced.
- He was charged for two sandwiches instead of one.
- It was lower than he had expected.
Question 20: What does the customer decide to do at the end of the conversation?
- He orders something from the restaurant menu.
- He plans to come back at the weekend.
- He decides to look for another place to eat.
- He plans to come in a week when the prices are lower.
PART 3 QUESTIONS 21 - 35
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures. The talks or lectures will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk or lecture. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 21 - 25 refer to the following talk.
Question 21: What did Sandy Duffy want to be when she was at school?
- A journalist
- A musician
- A director
- A basketball player
Question 22: What did Sandy study at university?
- Math and Physics
- Film making
- Technology
- Art
Question 23: How did Sandy get her first job as a video game writer?
- She answered a job advertisement.
- She met someone at a conference.
- She sent some information about herself to a company.
- She was invited by a friend.
Question 24: What does Sandy like best about being a video game writer?
- The prizes she has won
- The high salary
- The people she works with
- The great working condition
Question 25: What does Sandy dislike about being a video game writer?
- She has to work long hours.
- She has to travel a lot.
- She often has to change her job.
- She has to live far from home.
Questions 26 - 30 refer to the following talk.
Question 26: How long does the trek last?
- A day
- Three days
- Five days
- A week
Question 27: The trek aims to raise money for _______.
- health care
- school education
- hospital
- the elderly
Question 28: The cost of the trek includes _______.
- flight and airport taxes
- medical provision and taxes
- foods
- food and accommodation
Question 29: Participants must _______.
- walk across a glacier
- complete a fitness course
- agree to raise funds for the charity
- pay an amount of money
Question 30: The trip starts on _______.
- 1st of November
- 3rd of November
- 13th of November
- 23rd of November
Questions 31 - 35 refer to the following talk.
Question 31: Where do many of the rich people live?
- Next to the new road
- In the cities
- In the countryside
- In isolated places
Question 32: How long is the road?
- 600 kilometres
- 6,000 kilometres
- 60,000 kilometres
- 60 miles
Question 33: What can you see on the computers at the road's headquarters in Delhi?
- Small vehicles on the road
- Any vehicle and problems on the road
- Big vehicles on the road
- Serious problems on the road
Question 34: What types of transport can you see on the road?
- All types
- Mostly cars
- Mostly motorbikes
- The presenter doesn't say
Question 35: Why does the presenter describe the new road as a symbol of India's future?
- Because it's the same shape as the country of India
- Because it is modern and it helps the economy grow
- Because India has big population
- Because India has lots of transport
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Cần cố gắng nhiều: Kỹ năng nghe hiểu của bạn còn ở mức cơ bản. Hãy luyện nghe các đoạn hội thoại đơn giản và làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi thường gặp.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Khá tốt: Bạn có thể nghe và nắm bắt được các ý chính. Để cải thiện, hãy tập trung vào việc nghe các chi tiết cụ thể và các bài nói dài hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng nghe của bạn rất tốt. Bạn có thể hiểu rõ các cuộc hội thoại và bài giảng với tốc độ tự nhiên.
READING TEST 9
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheets, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Time allowance: You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 10
Phillis Wheatley was born in Gambia (in Africa) on May 8, 1753 and died in Boston on December 5, 1784.
When she was 7 or 8, she was sold as a slave to John and Susanna Wheatley of Boston. She was named after the ship that brought her to America, The Phillis.
The Poetry Foundation describes her sale:
In August 1761, "in want of a domestic," Susanna Wheatley, purchased "a slender, frail female child for a trifle." The captain of the slave ship believed that the waif was terminally ill, and he wanted at least a small profit before she died. The family surmised the girl - who was "of slender frame and evidently suffering from a change of climate," nearly naked, with "no other covering than a quantity of dirty carpet above her" - to be "about seven years old from the circumstances of shedding her front teeth." (http://www.poetryfoundation.org/bio/phillis-wheatley)
Phillis was very intelligent. The Wheatley Family taught her to read and write, and encouraged her to write poetry. Her first poem "On Messrs. Hussey and Coffin" was published when she was only twelve. In 1770, "An Elegiac Poem, on the Death of that Celebrated Divine, and Eminent Servant of Jesus Christ, the Reverend and Learned George Whitefield" made her famous. It was published in Boston, Newport, and Philadelphia.
When she was eighteen, Phillis and Mrs. Wheatley tried to sell a collection containing twenty-eight of her poems. Colonists did not want to buy poetry written by an African. Mrs. Wheatley wrote to England to ask Selina Hastings, Countess of Huntingdon, for help. The Countess was a wealthy supporter of evangelical and abolitionist (anti-slavery) causes. She had Poems on Various Subjects, Religious and Moral published in England in 1773. This book made Phillis famous in England and the thirteen colonies. She wrote a poem for George Washington in 1775, and he praised her work. They met in 1776. Phillis supported independence for the colonies during the Revolutionary War.
After her master died, Phillis was emancipated. She married John Peters, a free black man, in 1778. She and her husband lost two children as infants. John would be imprisoned for debt in 1784. Phillis and her remaining child died in December of 1784 and were buried in an unmarked grave. Nevertheless, the legacy of Phillis Wheatly lives on. She became the first African American and the first slave in the United States to publish a book. She proved that slaves or former slaves had a valuable voice in the Revolutionary era.
Câu 1
It can be inferred from the passage that the Countess of Huntingdon _______.
- didn't care about Phillis' poetry
- helped Phillis get her writings published
- believed in slavery
- was surprised that Phillis could read and write
Câu 2
What question is answered in the last paragraph?
- Who did Phillis marry?
- Where were Phillis' works published?
- What did Phillis prove?
- Why was Phillis a slave?
Câu 3
Phillis finally became free _______.
- when she published her poems in England
- after meeting the Countess of Huntingdon
- when she became wealthy
- after her master died
Câu 4
Phillis' first attempt at selling her poetry in America (the colonies) was _______.
- illegal
- imaginary
- unsuccessful
- successful
Câu 5
Which of the following is TRUE about Phillis Wheatley?
- She was the first African-American slave to visit England.
- She was the first African-American slave to publish a book in the United States.
- She was the first African-American slave to be able to read and write.
- She was the first African-American slave to meet George Washington.
Câu 6
The Wheatley family estimated the age of Phillis by _______.
- her size
- the condition of her teeth
- her color
- her weight
Câu 7
By the age of twelve, Phillis was _______.
- no longer a slave
- married
- a published poet
- still not able to read or write
Câu 8
The slave owner who sold Phillis to the Wheatley family believed that _______.
- she would soon recover from her illness
- she was very intelligent
- she was worth a lot of money
- she would soon die
Câu 9
Who was John Peters?
- A military general
- Somebody who Phillis admired greatly
- Phillis' husband
- A slave owner
Câu 10
Where is Phillis Wheatley buried?
- No one knows
- Africa
- Boston
- Virginia
PASSAGE 2 QUESTIONS 11 - 20
The conservatism of the early English colonists in North America, their strong attachment to the English way of doing things, would play a major part in the furniture that was made in New England. The very tools that the first New England furniture makers used were, after all, not much different from those used for centuries - even millennia: basic hammers, saws, chisels, planes, augers, compasses, and measures. These were the tools used more or less by all people who worked with wood: carpenters, barrel makers, and shipwrights. At most the furniture makers might have had planes with special edges or more delicate chisels, but there could not have been much specialization in the early years of the colonies.
The furniture makers in those early decades of the 1600s were known as "joiners", for the primary method of constructing furniture, at least among the English of this time, was that of mortise-and-tenon joinery. The mortise is the hole chiseled and cut into one piece of wood, while the tenon is the tongue or protruding element shaped from another piece of wood so that it fits into the mortise; and another small hole is then drilled (with the auger) through the mortised end and the tenon so that a whittled peg can secure the joint - thus the term "joiner". Panels were fitted into slots on the basic frames. This kind of construction was used for making everything from houses to chests.
Relatively little hardware was used during this period. Some nails - forged by hand - were used, but no screws or glue. Hinges were often made of leather, but metal hinges were also used. The cruder varieties were made by blacksmiths in the colonies, but the finer metal elements were imported. Locks and escutcheon plates - the latter to shield the wood from the metal key - would often be imported. Above all, what the early English colonists imported was their knowledge of, familiarity with, and dedication to the traditional types and designs of furniture they knew in England.
Câu 11
The phrase "attachment to" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
- control of
- distance from
- curiosity about
- preference for
Câu 12
The word "protruding" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
- parallel
- simple
- projecting
- important
Câu 13
The relationship of a mortise and a tenon is most similar to that of _______.
- a lock and a key
- a book and its cover
- a cup and a saucer
- a hammer and a nail
Câu 14
For what purpose did woodworkers use an auger?
- to whittle a peg
- to make a tenon
- to drill a hole
- to measure a panel
Câu 15
Which of the following were NOT used in the construction of colonial furniture?
- Mortises
- Nails
- Hinges
- Screws
Câu 16
The author implies that colonial metalworkers were _______.
- unable to make elaborate parts
- more skilled than woodworkers
- more conservative than other colonists
- frequently employed by joiners
Câu 17
The word "shield" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- decorate
- copy
- shape
- protect
Câu 18
The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to _______.
- designs
- types
- colonists
- all
Câu 19
The author implies that the colonial joiners _______.
- were highly paid
- based their furniture on English models
- used many specialized tools
- had to adjust to using new kinds of wood in New England
Câu 20
Which of the following terms does the author explain in the passage?
- Millennia
- Joiners
- Whittled
- Blacksmiths
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện. Hãy chú ý đến việc tìm ý chính và các chi tiết hỗ trợ trong đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn đã có khả năng đọc và nắm bắt thông tin tốt. Hãy luyện tập thêm để tăng tốc độ và độ chính xác.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu và suy luận của bạn rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục phát huy!
PASSAGE 3 QUESTIONS 1 - 10
In addition to their military role, the forts of the nineteenth century provided numerous other benefits for the American West. The establishment of these posts opened new roads and provided for the protection of daring adventurers and expeditions as well as established settlers. Forts also served as bases where enterprising entrepreneurs could bring commerce to the West, providing supplies and refreshments to soldiers as well as to pioneers. Posts like Fort Laramie provided supplies for wagon trains traveling the natural highways toward new frontiers. Some posts became stations for the pony express; still others, such as Fort Davis, were stagecoach stops for weary travelers. All of these functions, of course, suggest that the contributions of the forts to the civilization and development of the West extended beyond patrol duty.
Through the establishment of military posts, yet other contributions were made to the development of western culture. Many posts maintained libraries or reading rooms, and some - for example, Fort Davis - had schools. Post chapels provided a setting for religious services and weddings. Throughout the wilderness, post bands provided entertainment and boosted morale. During the last part of the nineteenth century, to reduce expenses, gardening was encouraged at the forts, thus making experimental agriculture another activity of the military. The military stationed at the various forts also played a role in civilian life by assisting in maintaining order, and civilian officials often called on the army for protection.
Certainly, among other significant contributions the army made to the improvement of the conditions of life was the investigation of the relationships among health, climate, and architecture. From the earliest colonial times throughout the nineteenth century, disease ranked as the foremost problem in defense. It slowed construction of forts and inhibited their military functions. Official documents from many regions contained innumerable reports of sickness that virtually incapacitated entire garrisons. In response to the problems, detailed observations of architecture and climate and their relationships to the frequency of the occurrence of various diseases were recorded at various posts across the nation by military surgeons.
Câu 1: Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
- By the nineteenth century, forts were no longer used by the military.
- Surgeons at forts could not prevent outbreaks of disease.
- Forts were important to the development of the American West.
- Life in nineteenth-century forts was very rough.
Câu 2: The word "daring" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
- lost
- bold
- lively
- foolish
Câu 3: Which of the following would a traveler be LEAST likely to obtain at Fort Laramie?
- Fresh water
- Food
- Formal clothing
- Lodging
Câu 4: The word "others" in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
- posts
- wagon trains
- frontiers
- highways
Câu 5: The word "boosted" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
- influenced
- established
- raised
- maintained
Câu 6: Which of the following is the most likely inference about the decision to promote gardening at forts?
- It was expensive to import produce from far away.
- Food brought in from outside was often spoiled.
- Gardening was a way to occupy otherwise idle soldiers.
- The soil near the forts was very fertile.
Câu 7: According to the passage, which of the following posed the biggest obstacle to the development of military forts?
- Insufficient shelter
- Shortage of materials
- Attacks by wild animals
- Illness
Câu 8: The word "inhibited" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
- involved
- exploited
- united
- hindered
Câu 9: How did the military assist in the investigation of health problems?
- By registering annual birth and death rates
- By experiments with different building materials
- By maintaining records of diseases and potential causes
- By monitoring the soldiers' diets
Câu 10: The author organizes the discussion of forts by _______.
- Describing their locations
- Comparing their sizes
- Explaining their damage to the environment
- Listing their contributions to Western life
PASSAGE 4 QUESTIONS 11 - 20
Anyone who has handled a fossilized bone knows that it is usually not exactly like its modern counterpart, the most obvious difference being that it is often much heavier. Fossils often have the quality of stone rather than of organic materials, and this has led to the use of the term "petrifaction" (to bring about rock). The implication is that bone, and other tissues, have somehow been turned into stone, and this is certainly the explanation given in some texts. But it is wrong interpretation; fossils are frequently so dense because the pores and other spaces in the bone have become filled with minerals taken up from the surrounding sediments. Some fossil bones have all the interstitial spaces filled with foreign minerals, including the marrow cavity, if there is one, while others have taken up little from their surroundings. Probably all of the minerals deposited within the bone have been recrystallized from solution by the action of water percolating through them. The degree of mineralization appears to be determined by the nature of the environment in which the bone was deposited and not by the antiquity of the bone. For example, the black fossil bones that are so common in many parts of Florida are heavily mineralized, but they are only about 20,000 years old, whereas many of the dinosaur bones from western Canada, which are about 75 million years old, are only partially filled in. Under optimum conditions, the process of mineralization probably takes thousands rather than millions of years, perhaps considerably less.
The amount of change that has occurred in fossil bones, even in bones as old as that of dinosaurs, is often remarkably small. We are therefore usually able to see the microscopic structures of the bone, including such fine details as the lacunae where the living bone cells once resided. The natural bone mineral, the hydroxyapatite, is virtually unaltered too - it has the same crystal structure as that of modern bone. Although nothing remains of the original collagen, some of its component amino acids are usually still detectable, together with amino acids of the non-collagenous proteins of bone.
Câu 11: What does the passage mainly discuss?
- The location of fossils in North America
- The composition of fossils
- Determining the size and weight of fossils
- Procedures for analyzing fossils
Câu 12: The word "counterpart" in line 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
- species
- version
- change
- material
Câu 13: Why is fossilized bone heavier than ordinary bone?
- Bone tissue solidifies with age.
- The marrow cavity gradually fills with water.
- The organic materials turn to stone.
- Spaces within the bone fill with minerals.
Câu 14: The word "pores" in line 6 is closest in meaning to _______.
- joints
- tissues
- lines
- holes
Câu 15: What can be inferred about a fossil with a high degree of mineralization?
- It was exposed to large amounts of mineral-laden water throughout time.
- Mineralization was complete within one year of the animal's death.
- Many colorful crystals can be found in such a fossil.
- It was discovered in western Canada.
Câu 16: Which of the following factors is most important in determining the extent of mineralization in fossil bones?
- The age of fossil
- Environmental conditions
- The location of the bone in the animal's body
- The type of animal the bone came from
Câu 17: Why does the author compare fossils found in western Canada to those found in Florida?
- To prove that a fossil's age cannot be determined by the amount of mineralization
- To discuss the large quantity of fossils found in both places
- To suggest that fossils found in both places were the same age
- To explain why scientists are especially interested in Canadian fossils
Câu 18: The word "it" in the last paragraph refers to _______.
- hydroxyapatite
- microscopic structure
- crystal structure
- modern bone
Câu 19: The word "detectable" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- sizable
- active
- moist
- apparent
Câu 20: Which of the following does NOT survive in fossils?
- Non-collagenous proteins
- Hydroxyapatite
- Collagen
- Amino acid
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cố gắng: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được cải thiện nhiều hơn. Hãy tập trung vào việc đọc và nắm ý chính của từng đoạn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
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Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích thông tin của bạn rất ấn tượng.
LISTENING TEST 10
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording. There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only.
Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
PART 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 8
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D.
1. What does the caller ask Ms. Cook to do?
- Take along her medical insurance card
- Make an appointment
- Call the receptionist
- Drive his car to the clinic
2. Who is Sachiko Suzuki?
- a job applicant
- A receptionist
- A client
- A personnel officer
3. What is the listener asked to do?
- Order a new phone
- Call back
- Go to the office
- Contact the speaker
4. What is the purpose of this message?
- To confirm an order
- To order some furniture
- To ask for order information
- To inform a change
5. What is the main purpose of the call?
- To reschedule an interview
- To arrange a class
- To postpone an exhibition
- To request an application
6. What is Ms. Kim asked to do?
- Return a phone call
- Deliver a printer
- Meet him on Friday
- Change the order
7. What is the decreasing percentage of domestic sales?
- 7 percent
- 11 percent
- 17 percent
- 70 percent
8. What does the speaker say about Rea?
- She can answer questions about safety equipment.
- She can teach people how to skate.
- She can provide a safety helmet.
- She can stake with others.
PART 2 QUESTIONS 9 - 20
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation.
9. What is the conversation mainly about?
- Giving a presentation
- Organizing an essay in a clear way
- Finding a partner for a class project
- Finding information and taking notes
10. What does the professor recommend doing when taking notes?
- Writing as quickly as possible
- Making a summary
- Checking the information
- Getting lots of information
11. What does the professor suggest the woman do?
- She only needs to read the summary.
- She should use computers to search for information.
- She should go to the library to find information.
- She should organize her notes.
12. What is the likely outcome of using both books and computers as sources?
- The student will need help doing the research.
- The student will not be able to finish her project.
- The student will have plenty of information.
- The student will like books more than the computer.
Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation.
13. What is the main topic of this conversation?
- The different sections of the library
- How to check out library books
- How to return the due books
- The use of computer in the library
14. Who is Mr. Baker likely be?
- A librarian
- A janitor
- A shopkeeper
- A student
15. What does the woman need if she wants to use the self-service machine?
- Librarian's permission
- A library account
- Money
- A receipt
16. How does the man explain the solution?
- By mentioning the ways to check out books
- By describing which books to check out
- By giving information about the self-service machine
- By explaining the procedure of borrowing books
Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation.
17. Why is the student looking for help?
- He is supposed to meet with one of his friends.
- He is looking for a part-time job.
- He wants to know how to find a book.
- He is struggling with his job.
18. What kind of books is the man looking for?
- Economics
- Poetry
- Geography
- History
19. How does the book listing organize the books?
- Alphabetically
- By the author's name
- By the subject and then title
- By the subject and then the author's name
20. What is implied about the student's opinion of finding a book?
- He thinks it will be easier than he expected.
- He doesn't think that he can do it.
- He is not looking forward to trying to find a book.
- He thinks that the librarian should find it for him.
PART 3 QUESTIONS 21 - 35
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks, lectures or conversations. There are five questions for each talk, lecture or conversation. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, or D.
Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following professor's lecture.
21. What is the lecture mainly about?
- What heat is
- How heat transfers
- The properties of heat
- Heat in hot air balloons
22. What happens to a hot air balloon because of convection?
- The balloon's air is heated.
- The balloon becomes filled with gas.
- The balloon goes up and goes down.
- The balloon's flame gets hotter and hotter.
23. What is the professor's opinion of conduction?
- He finds it easiest to teach by cooking.
- He feels that it is good for making buildings.
- He believes that it is useful for heating buildings.
- He thinks many people get hurt from it.
24. Why does the professor mention a toaster?
- To explain how toast is made by convection
- To discuss how conduction makes toasters hot
- To give an example of something that bums people
- To give an example of heat radiation
25. What can be inferred from the lecturer?
- Heat moving through solid materials is convection.
- Convection is not a pattern that repeats.
- Heat cannot move through solid materials.
- Some materials are better at conducting heat than others.
Questions 26 to 30 refer to the following lecture.
26. What is the lecture mainly about?
- The Impressionist painters and their work
- Why people didn't like Impressionism
- How people posed in impressionist paintings
- The key features of Impressionist paintings
27. How did Impressionist art differ from previous art?
- It featured people instead of landscapes.
- It used new and different blends of colors.
- It created a three-dimensional effect.
- It was created outside using natural light.
28. What is the speaker's opinion of Impressionism?
- She likes it because it is different.
- She likes it because the colors blend so well.
- She thinks it's difficult because it uses natural light.
- She doesn't like it because it's blurry.
29. How are the points in the lecture organized?
- In the order that the painters painted
- From most difficult to least difficult
- In the order the textbook mentions them
- By describing the most important points
30. What is the purpose of this lecture?
- To show why older styles of art were better
- To show how older styles of art were different
- To explain how the students should paint
- To describe a famous canvas
Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following conversation.
31. What is the talk mainly about?
- The writer of Watership Down
- The main characters of Watership Down
- The themes of Watership Down
- The political ideas behind Watership Down
32. What is the reason the rabbits leave home?
- They do not have any freedom.
- Their home is going to be destroyed.
- They want to have an adventure.
- They want a new government.
33. Why does the professor mention the leader of Efrafa?
- To show the government style of Efrafa
- To compare Efrafa and the Tharn Warren
- To describe how the rabbits typically acted
- To show that the rabbits lived peacefully with others
34. How is the professor's lecture organized?
- The themes of the story and how they are shown.
- The characters and then what the themes aren't.
- The character comparisons followed by the contrasts.
- The steps the author took in writing the book.
35. What is the professor's attitude towards Watership Down?
- She thinks that it shows real life very well.
- She believes that Watership Down is a very simple book.
- She thinks that the book is just about rabbits.
- She thinks that it is hard to understand.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Cần cố gắng: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng nghe cơ bản và làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi của bài thi VSTEP.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc nhận biết các thông tin gây nhiễu và luyện tập nghe các bài nói dài.
Kết quả: [[score]]/35
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng nghe của bạn rất tốt và phù hợp với các trình độ cao. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này.
READING TEST 10
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Time allowance: You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 QUESTIONS 1 - 10
As new industrialism swept over the land in the wake of the Civil War, people flocked to the nation's cities in unprecedented numbers from rural regions, villages, and foreign countries. Housing for the new city-dwellers took many forms as new architectural styles were developed.
During this period of urban expansion, speculative builders discovered a bonanza in the form of the row house. Designed for single-family occupancy, these dwellings cost relatively little to construct because they shared common walls with their neighbors and because many could be erected side by side on a narrow street frontage. Along New York's gridiron of streets and avenues rose block after block of row houses, which, by the 1880s, were almost invariably faced with brownstone. In contrast, wooden row houses on the West Coast appeared light and airy with their coats of bright paint. San Francisco developed a particularly successful row vernacular, suitable for rich and poor alike, as typified by clusters of homes like the Rountree group, which featured Queen Anne elements in their pitched roofs and heavily decorated exteriors. Although critics likened the facades of such structures to the "piffling, paint, and powder of our female friends", the houses were efficiently planned, sanitary, and well-lighted. Virtually every dwelling boasted one or more bay windows, which were as important to surviving San Franciscans as brownstone fronts were to New Yorkers. As an English traveler observed California architecture, "with all the windows gracefully leaping out at themselves", should rightly be called the "bay-window order".
Question 1
The main purpose of the author in this passage is _______.
- to contrast two versions of a similar architectural form
- to persuade people to live in row houses
- to argue for the excellence of California row houses
- to describe the effects of urbanization
Question 2
The phrase "a bonanza" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- a confusing choice
- a difficult challenge
- an exciting design
- a good investment
Question 3
The phrase "almost invariably" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- usually
- seldom
- sometimes
- never
Question 4
According to the passage, why did speculative builders profit from row houses?
- Because they cost very little to build
- Because they were for single families
- Because they were well-constructed
- Because they were attractive
Question 5
All of the following can be inferred about row houses from the passage EXCEPT _______.
- they provided for high-density housing
- they housed people of different economic classes
- they provided a new and popular form of architectural design
- they had no front yards
Question 6
The phrase "such structures" in the second paragraph refers to _______.
- West Coast wooden row houses
- poor people's houses
- the homes in the Rountree group
- Queen Anne's home
Question 7
What can be inferred from the passage about New York row houses?
- They were less colorful than row houses on the West Coast.
- They were windowless.
- They were smaller than California row houses.
- They were less similar in appearance than row houses in California.
Question 8
In the passage, critics of San Francisco row houses commented on their _______.
- excessive use of bay windows
- ostentatious decoration
- repetitive nature
- lack of light
Question 9
The word "boasted" in the second paragraph is used to indicate the owners' _______.
- skill
- wealth
- intelligence
- pride
Question 10
The author of the second paragraph implies that the most important feature for Californians living in row houses was _______.
- the color
- the price
- the windows
- the heavily decorated exteriors
PASSAGE 2 QUESTIONS 11 - 20
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man's inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop. Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist-skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found: the giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed, running, and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere in the world.
The secret of their adjustment lies in a combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.
An example of a desert animal that has adapted to subterranean living and lack of water is the kangaroo rat. Like many desert animals, kangaroo rats stay underground during the day. At night, they go outside to look for food. As evening temperatures drop, moisture from air forms on plants and seeds. They absorb some of this moisture and kangaroo rats take in the life-giving water as they eat.
Question 11
What is the topic of this passage?
- Desert plants
- Life underground
- Animal life in a desert environment
- Man's life in the desert
Question 12
The word "greater" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- stronger
- larger
- more noticeable
- heavier
Question 13
The phrase "those forms" in the first paragraph refers to all of the following EXCEPT _______.
- water-loving animals
- the bobcat
- moist-skinned animals
- many large animals
Question 14
The word "desiccating" in the first paragraph means _______.
- drying
- humidifying
- killing
- life threatening
Question 15
The author mentions all of the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT _______.
- animals sleep during the day
- animals dig homes underground
- animals are noisy and aggressive
- animals are watchful and quiet
Question 16
The word "emaciated" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- wild
- cunning
- unmanageable
- unhealthy
Question 17
The author states that one characteristic of animals who live in the desert is that they _______.
- are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
- are less healthy than animals who live in different places
- can hunt in temperatures of 150 degrees
- live in an accommodating environment
Question 18
The word "subterranean" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- underground
- safe
- precarious
- harsh
Question 19
The word "they" in the third paragraph refers to _______.
- kangaroo rats
- the desert population
- plants and seeds
- the burrows of desert animals
Question 20
Which of the following generalizations are supported by the passage?
- Water is the basis of life.
- All living things adjust to their environments.
- Desert life is colorful.
- Healthy animals live longer lives.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Cần cải thiện: Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn cần được củng cố thêm. Hãy tập trung vào việc xác định ý chính của đoạn văn và tìm kiếm thông tin chi tiết.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Khá tốt: Bạn có khả năng đọc hiểu tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy chú ý đến các câu hỏi suy luận và từ vựng trong ngữ cảnh.
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
Xuất sắc: Chúc mừng! Kỹ năng đọc hiểu của bạn rất ấn tượng. Bạn đã sẵn sàng cho những thử thách khó hơn.
PASSAGE 3 QUESTIONS 1 - 10
Animals and higher-order plants depend on nitrogen that is present in soil as they cannot utilize free nitrogen from the atmosphere. To enter living systems, nitrogen must be combined with oxygen or hydrogen to form compounds such as ammonia or nitrates that plants are able to use. Nitrogen gas is converted to ammonia fertilizer by a chemical process involving high pressure and high temperature. This process is called nitrogen fixation. Martinus Willem Beijerinck discovered nitrogen fixation.
The nitrogen molecule is quite inert and breaking it apart requires a considerable amount of energy. There are three processes that are responsible for most of the nitrogen fixation in the biosphere. They are atmospheric fixation, biological fixation, and industrial fixation. Atmospheric fixation occurs through lightning, forest fires, or even hot lava flows where energy breaks down nitrogen molecules and enables their atoms to combine with oxygen in the air, thus forming nitrogen oxides. These liquefy in rain, forming nitrates, that are then carried to earth.
In biological nitrogen fixation, the nitrogen is available to some species of microorganisms. Atmospheric nitrogen is converted to ammonia by bacterial enzymes called nitrogenase. More than 90% of all nitrogen fixation is affected by them. There are two kinds of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms: free-living (non-symbiotic) bacteria and symbiotic bacteria. Microorganisms that fix nitrogen are called diazotrophs. These need a chemical energy source if they are non-photosynthetic. However, if they are photosynthetic, they can utilize light energy. The free-living diazotrophs supply little fixed nitrogen to agricultural crops, whereas the symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacteria live close to plant roots and can obtain energy materials from the plants.
The symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacteria invade the root hair of plants. Here they multiply the formation of root nodules, and enlargements of plant cells and bacteria in close proximity. Within the nodules, the bacteria convert the free nitrogen to nitrates, which the plant makes use of for its development.
To make certain of sufficient nodule formation and the best possible growth of legumes (beans, clover, peas, soybeans), seeds are usually inoculated, particularly in poor soils where bacteria is lacking. This system is most important for agriculture as many legumes are then able to grow vigorously under nitrogen deficient conditions, contributing nitrogen to the farming system or as green manure included in the soil. Legumes are also a significant source of protein primarily for the developing world.
Industrial fixation takes place at a temperature of 600 degrees Celsius. In this method, atmospheric nitrogen and hydrogen can be combined to form ammonia, which in turn can be used directly as a fertilizer. It was during the early 19th century that the importance of fixed nitrogen to growing plants was understood. Where people practiced intensive agriculture, demand arose for nitrogen compounds to augment the natural supply present in the soil.
Around the same time, Chilean saltpeter was increasingly used to make gunpowder. This led to a global search for natural deposits of this nitrogen compound. Toward the end of the 19th century, it was realized that Chilean imports would not meet future demands, and, in the event of a major war, without the Chilean supply, manufacturing sufficient weapons would not be possible.
[A] Several processes were then developed: directly combining oxygen with nitrogen, the reaction of nitrogen with calcium carbide, and the direct combination of nitrogen with hydrogen. [B] Combining oxygen and nitrogen was inefficient in its use of energy. Both were costly and the process was abandoned. [C] It is named after Fritz Haber and Carl Bosch, who determined that nitrogen from the air could be combined with nitrogen under enormously high pressures and fairly high temperatures in the presence of an active mechanism to produce an extremely high quantity of ammonia. [D]
Germany heavily relied on this process during World War I, which led to a rapid expansion of the construction of nitrogen plants in many other countries. This method is now one of the leading processes of the chemical industry throughout the world.
Question 1
According to paragraph 1, how must nitrogen molecules enter living organisms?
- They must be converted to ammonia or nitrates.
- They must be combined with oxygen in the form of nitrate.
- They must be absorbed by the plant to furnish its nitrogen.
- They must be mixed with oxygen or hydrogen.
Question 2
The phrase "breaks down" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- destroys
- discontinues
- ceases
- decomposes
Question 3
Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about nitrogen fixation?
- Nature cannot make it occur by itself.
- It is a process that does not necessarily require the influence of man.
- The process needs perfect circumstances to happen.
- Nitrogen is essential to all life on Earth.
Question 4
According to paragraph 3, one factor needed for photosynthetic biological fixation is _______.
- a light source
- the presence of ammonia
- 90% rainfall for a week
- a chemical energy source
Question 5
The word "affected" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- driven
- influenced
- stopped
- changed
Question 6
Why does the author mention "diazotrophs" in the third paragraph?
- To explain the industrial process of nitrogen fixation
- To show how a plants roots are important for this process
- To give an example of a living organism capable of fixing nitrogen
- To explain the impact of nitrogen on a microorganism
Question 7
The word "invade" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- attack
- defend
- occupy
- dominate
Question 8
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 5?
- The ability to grow legumes with little nitrogen is highly valuable.
- Legumes do not need much nitrogen to develop and grow strong.
- The farming system makes huge demands on the nitrogen level in the ground.
- Agriculture creates a great need for legumes and their produce.
Question 9
According to paragraph 8, which of the following is characteristic of the Haber-Bosch process?
- Producing low amount of ammonia
- Using extremely high pressures
- Reducing the supply of nitrogen compounds
- Leading to widespread use during World War I
Question 10
Look at the four squares [A], [B], [C], [D] in the passage. Where would the following sentence best fit?
However, the Haber-Bosch process which created ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is the most cost- effective nitrogen fixation process known.
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
PASSAGE 4 QUESTIONS 11 - 20
Throughout Western civilization, women's suffrage and the progression of these rights have played a pivotal role in its history. The best example of how these rights have progressed is in two nations that share a common history, Great Britain and the United States of America. [A] In England, the suffrage movement began in 1866 when prominent women's rights reformers gathered over 1,500 signatures on a petition to Parliament appealing for the right to vote. [B] However, significant headway has not been made yet. Women's rights activists soon grew combative and thus made certain that suffrage was a central issue. [C] In America, due to the Civil War, women's suffrage was temporarily halted. However, from 1876, campaigns, referendums, and gatherings were organized and carried out. [D]
The influence of Great Britain on the United States cannot be understated, yet there are both significant differences and similarities in how suffrage rights have progressed and evolved within each of these nations. In both countries, suffrage was based on class, race, nation, and gender. The suffragists were outside of the political establishment, campaigning alone and without support. They were predominately white and middle class in both countries, and their arguments reflected their class. In the first phase of the two countries, the arguments for suffrage focused on equality, and then turned to women's contribution to nation building after World War I.
Feudalism and hereditary rule predated the establishment of limited suffrage in Great Britain. Aspects of this system remained for a significant period of time with only the wealthy and land-owning males allowed to vote. This system was based on the principles that the wealthy would vote in the interests of the nation, just as the monarchy of Britain would rule in the interest of all its subjects. This distributive system of power played an important role in the history of the United States.
English landowners asserted their right to vote based on their personal wealth. Aspects of this trend are clearly evident in America. In 1776, a clause that guaranteed voting rights for white, male landowners was included in the United States Declaration of Independence. This was identical to the suffrage rights in Great Britain at that time in history. Voting was generally perceived not as a right, but as a privilege that only those who owned land could exercise.
By 1786, the United States Constitution had been amended to give individual states the power to establish their own suffrage rights. As a result of this, in 1791, Vermont passed a law declaring that all white males, regardless of whether they possessed property or not, could vote. In contrast, it was not until the Chartist movement in Great Britain in the 1840s that a popular movement had demanded wider suffrage rights. The eventual failure of the Chartist movement in 1850 ensured that only one in every five adult males in England was entitled to vote. While popular suffrage reform stalled in Great Britain, it accelerated in America during this period. In the wake of the American Civil War, the Fifteenth Amendment to the Constitution granted African-American men the right to vote throughout the country. However, just as in England, women remained excluded by law from voting.
In the aftermath of the first World War, suffrage rights were extended to include women. This change took place first in America in 1920 with the 1991 amendment to the Constitution. It was not until 1928 that voting rights between men and women in Great Britain were equalized. As suffrage rights have extended to include groups formerly excluded, this trend continues in the West. In 1971, a further amendment lowered the age of voting from 20 to 18 in America. Today, in Great Britain and the majority of Western nations, the voting age is 18.
Initially, the progression of suffrage rights in America mirrored Great Britain's. The wealthy male landowners dominated voting and, therefore, political power, and voted only in their interests. In the wake of the American Civil War and the first World War, suffrage rights were extended to African-Americans, women, and individuals possessing no property, which boosted their status from lower class citizens to a higher level. Today, suffrage, in its universal form, plays a key role in democracies worldwide.
Question 11
According to paragraph 1, why were 1,500 signatures gathered on a petition?
- Women sought the right to peaceful demonstrations.
- Women and men urged for the right to vote and own property.
- Women were requesting the right to vote.
- Collaboration was needed to facilitate women's right to vote.
Question 12
The word "progressed" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- withheld
- withstood
- advanced
- contained
Question 13
According to paragraph 2, which of the following was true of the suffragist movement?
- Suffragists had a chance to change their position in society.
- Women achieved their goal of winning full voting rights.
- It was primarily run by working class women.
- Most suffragists were moderate in their tactics.
Question 14
According to paragraph 4, the United States Declaration of Independence guaranteed _______.
- that African Americans could vote
- that all 21-year olds could vote
- that women could vote and hold political office
- that only white, male landowners were allowed to vote
Question 15
The word "their" in the fourth paragraph refers to _______.
- Englishmen
- British royalty
- English landowners
- American landowners
Question 16
Why does the author mention that "Aspects of this trend are clearly evident in America"?
- To argue that the right to vote only was exercised by the wealthy and elite
- To provide evidence that voting was not a right only for those who owned land
- To show that the right to voting privileges only was granted to wealthy male property holders
- To support the claim that the right to vote was an attribute of U.S. citizenship
Question 17
The word "stalled" in the fifth paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
- prevented
- profited
- contributed
- halted
Question 18
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the Chartist movement?
- Suffrage rights became the standard and expanded to include people of middle Eastern descent after the Chartist movement failed.
- The Chartist movement was quashed by a group of hostile forces who were opposed to progression.
- The Chartist movement helped ensure that only women could vote.
- The progression of suffrage rights started to slow after the Chartist movement failed.
Question 19
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 4?
- In the period following the Civil War and World War I, voting rights were extended to most minorities.
- No one could vote in Great Britain unless they owned land, were white, and could read.
- War in Europe and America led many countries to disallow people of color the right to vote.
- Voting has always been considered a privilege in most Western countries.
Question 20
Look at the four squares [A], [B], [C], [D] in the passage. Where would the following sentence best fit?
American suffragists, however, were not as aggressive as their British counterparts.
- [A]
- [B]
- [C]
- [D]
Kết quả: [[score]]/20
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