⭐ Lộ trình chinh phục band 7.0+
Luyện thi IELTS Online Mock Test
Trải nghiệm các bài thi thử IELTS online chuẩn format quốc tế, bao gồm cả Academic & General Training. Hệ thống cung cấp đề thi đầy đủ 4 kỹ năng: Listening, Reading, Writing, Speaking với bộ đề cập nhật liên tục. Nhận kết quả và phân tích chi tiết ngay sau khi làm bài để xác định trình độ và cải thiện điểm số hiệu quả.
Danh sách đề thi IELTS
Test IELTS listening - Đề 2
Test IELTS listening - Đề 3
Test IELTS Listening - Đề 4
Test IELTS Listening - Đề 5
Test IELTS Listening - Đề 6
Test IELTS Listening - Đề 7
Test IELTS Listening - Đề 8
Test IELTS reading - Đề 1
Test IELTS reading - Đề 2
Test IELTS reading - Đề 3
Test IELTS Reading - Đề 4
Test IELTS Reading - Đề 5
Test IELTS Reading - Đề 6
Test IELTS Reading - Đề 7
Test IELTS Reading - Đề 8
Testi IELTS listening - Đề 1
Listen to the audio and answer questions 1-40.
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Southern Rental Car – booking
Name: William (1) __________
Address: 10 (2) __________ Nelson
Contact number: 07 (3) __________
Payment by credit card type: (4) __________ card.
Card No. 4550 1392 8309 3221
Card expiry date: July 20XX
Rental period: (5) __________ days
Question 1: Name
- Waddell
- Waddle
- Wadell
Question 2: Address
- Robin Place
- Robyn Place
- Robbin Place
Question 3: Contact number
- 263 8666
- 236 8666
- 263 6888
Question 4: Card type
- Mastercard
- Amex
- Visa
Question 5: Rental period
- 10
- 12
- 14
Answer the following questions USING NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.
6. How much is the car per day?
- $35
- $45
- $55
7. What does the price include?
- Limited kilometres
- Unlimited kilometres
- Free insurance
8. Who will he be visiting?
- Relatives
- Friends
- Family
9. What kind of car does the agent recommend?
- Manual
- Automatic
- Electric
10. What does he need to collect the car?
- Driving license
- Passport
- Credit card
Complete the tables below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Overlander
Distance / km: (11) __________
Highlight: 3 volcanoes
Time / hours: 11
Transalpine
Distance / km: 223
Highlight: (12) __________
Time / hours: (13) __________
Transcoastal
Distance / km: (14) __________
Highlight: (15) __________
Time / hours: 5
Question 11: Overlander - Distance
- 618
- 681
- 861
Question 12: Transalpine - Highlight
- Rivers
- Mountains
- Tunnels
Question 13: Transalpine - Time
- 4
- 5
- 6
Question 14: Transcoastal - Distance
- X
- 350
- Not given
Question 15: Transcoastal - Highlight
- Dolphin watching
- Whale watching
- Seal watching
Complete the summary below USING NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.
Taking three days to complete, the (16) __________ is one of the world's longest train journeys. The Ghan is shorter, passing through towns built by the (17) __________. There is also a sculpture designed to mark the laying of the (18) __________ concrete sleeper. The Overland was the first train to travel between the capital cities in two (19) __________ and it is also the oldest journey of its kind on (20) __________.
Question 16: Taking three days to complete, the _____ is one of the world's longest train journeys.
- Indian Pacific
- Ghan
- Overland
Question 17: The Ghan is shorter, passing through towns built by the _____
- Pioneers
- Settlers
- Earlier
Question 18: There is also a sculpture designed to mark the laying of the _____ concrete sleeper.
- 1 Millionth
- 100,000th
- First
Question 19: The Overland was the first train to travel between the capital cities in two _____
- Countries
- States
- Provinces
Question 20: and it is also the oldest journey of its kind on _____
- The world
- Australia
- The continent
Questions 21-25 - Circle the correct letter A–C.
21. Lyn is having difficulty completing her project because...
- she doesn’t have enough information.
- she can’t organise her presentation.
- she doesn’t have enough time.
22. Her presentation is going to focus on...
- solar power in America.
- solar-powered water heaters.
- alternative energy technology.
23. Why does Lyn think we should be looking for alternative sources of energy?
- Fossil fuels are expensive.
- Fossil fuels have an impact on the environment.
- Fossil fuels are limited.
24. Solar power is a good form of alternative energy because...
- it can be harnessed with simple technology.
- it is infinite.
- it can be applied equally well in any country.
25. Which graph best indicates what Lyn is describing?

- A
- B
- C
Questions 26-30 - Label the diagram USING NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER

Question 26:
- 40 litres
- 14 litres
- 4 litres
Question 27:
- Solar panel
- Solar coil
- Solar pipe
Question 28:
- 20
- 22
- 25
Question 29:
- 55
- 60
- 65
Question 30:
- Fiberglass
- Rigid foam
- Soft foam
Questions 31-40 - Complete the sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.
Lecture on (31) __________
Examples: tourism and (32) __________
Common misconception is that marketing points to (33) __________ in what is being provided.
Marketing is essential in maintaining (34) __________
Selling a product is easier because it is (35) __________ and customers do not have such different (36) __________
Aim: offer service beyond hopes of (37) __________
Important to: (a) keep informed & (b) (38) __________
One way to achieve this: (39) __________
(40) __________ must always be available for any queries or problems.
Question 31: Lecture on _____
- Services marketing
- Product marketing
- Customer service
Question 32: Examples: tourism and _____
- Legal advice
- Banking
- Insurance
Question 33: Common misconception is that marketing points to _____ in what is being provided
- Strength
- Weakness
- Price
Question 34: Marketing is actually essential in maintaining _____
- Good service
- Customer numbers
- High prices
Question 35: Selling a product is easier because it is _____
- Intangible
- Tangible
- Visible
Question 36: and customers do not have such different _____
- Opinions
- Expectations
- Needs
Question 37: Aim: offer service beyond hopes of _____
- Clients
- Customers
- Staff
Question 38: Important to: (a) keep informed & (b) _____
- Always improve
- Constantly improve
- Maintain service
Question 39: One way to achieve this: _____
- Surveys
- Feedback
- Forms
Question 40: _____ must always be available
- A representative
- The manager
- The director
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 3.0 - 4.5: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng nghe cơ bản. Hãy tập trung nghe các đoạn hội thoại ngắn, làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi và luyện tập thường xuyên để cải thiện.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 5.0 - 6.5: Khá tốt! Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc nhận biết các thông tin gây nhiễu và luyện tập nghe các bài nói dài hơn với tốc độ nhanh hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 7.0+: Xuất sắc! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng nghe hiểu rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này bằng cách nghe các nguồn tài liệu đa dạng như tin tức, podcast để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
Listen to the audio and answer questions 1-40.
Questions 1-6
Complete the form using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Buying a Used Car: Contact Details
Model: Celica
Year: 1985 (EXAMPLE)
Number of owners: (1) __________
Condition: overall good.
(2) __________ done last year.
Reason for selling: (3) __________
Asking price: (4) __________
Appointment time: (5) __________
Address: (6) __________, Parkwood.
Contact name: Elena
Question 1: Number of owners
- 2
- 3
- 4
Question 2: Work done last year
- engine
- tires
- brakes
Question 3: Reason for selling
- going overseas
- bought a new car
- needs money
Question 4: Asking price
- $1,000
- $1,500
- $2,000
Question 5: Appointment time
- 5:30 pm
- 6:00 pm
- 6:30 pm
Question 6: Address
- 88 Princess Street
- 18 Princess Street
- 8 Princess Street
Questions 7-10
Circle the correct letter A-C.
7. What happened to Sam's car?
- It was replaced by another one.
- It broke down.
- It was stolen.
8. Why does Jan need a car now?
- She lives too far from the university.
- She spends too much time on the bus.
- She would feel safer at night with a car.
9. What does Sam recommend?
- check the service records
- avoid buying an old car
- get a mechanical inspection
10. How are they travelling to Elena's?
- by motorcycle
- on foot
- by bus
Questions 11-13
As you listen, fill in the details to complete the information on the map below.

Question 11:
- 2 hours
- 3 hours
- 4 hours
Question 12:
- blue whales
- grey whales
- sperm whales
Question 13:
- hot springs
- waterfalls
- geysers
Questions 14–16
Fill in the chart using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
Whale Identification Chart
| Colour | Size | General Characteristics | |
|---|---|---|---|
| Dolphins | grey | 1–2 metres | (14) __________ |
| Orcas / Killer Whales | (15) __________ | 7–8 metres | • fierce hunters • eat fish, seals, other whales |
| Grey Whales | grey | (16) __________ | • migratory • solitary • filter feeders, eat shrimp |
Question 14: Dolphins - Characteristics
- fast, playful, curious
- slow, shy, timid
- fast, solitary, shy
Question 15: Orcas - Colour
- black and grey
- black and white
- only black
Question 16: Grey Whales - Size
- 12 m
- 13 m
- 14 m
Questions 17–20
Complete the following using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
Advice for Participants on Whale Watching Excursions
For a smooth ride, sit (17) __________ of the boat.
Survival suits are (18) __________ in colour for maximum visibility.
They are designed to keep you floating upright even if you (19) __________.
For seasickness: Place a patch (20) __________ instead of taking pills.
Question 17: For a smooth ride, sit _____
- in the front
- in the middle
- at the back
Question 18: Survival suits are _____
- red
- orange
- yellow
Question 19: ...even if you _____
- can't swim
- are unconscious
- fall overboard
Question 20: Place a patch _____
- on your arm
- at the wrist
- behind the ear
Questions 21-23
Fill in the summary with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.
Selection Process for 'Travel Documentary'
34 interviewed from (21) __________ applicants nationally
13 chosen for a (22) __________ training course in film-making
(23) __________ finalists selected as competitors
Question 21: ...from _____ applicants
- 100
- 200
- 300
Question 22: ...a _____ training course
- 2 week
- 3 week
- 4 week
Question 23: _____ finalists selected
- 6
- 8
- 10
Questions 24-26
Complete the summary. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
Requirements of competitors:

produce a (24) __________ every two weeks
no previous professional (25) __________ experience allowed
make their own (26) __________ and obtain approval
Question 24: produce a _____
- 10 minute video
- 15 minute video
- 20 minute video
Question 25: no professional _____
- travel experience
- film making
- camera work
Question 26: make their own _____
- travel arrangements
- travel plan
- travel budget
Questions 27-28
Circle the correct letter A-C.
27. What was Sarah Price's worst experience during the trip?
- She got lost in Mongolia.
- She was homesick.
- She got sick in a remote place.
28. In which of the following areas does Ray expect to have most difficulty?
- loneliness
- time pressure
- organisation skills
Questions 29-30
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
29. In what month does the journey begin?
- September
- October
- November
30. Name 2 things that are provided free of charge to the competitors: flights and travel, camera, accommodation, and _____?
- food
- insurance
- equipment
Questions 31-40
Complete the sentences below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.
Lecture on (31) __________
Examples: tourism and (32) __________
Common misconception points to (33) __________ in what is being provided.
Marketing is essential in maintaining (34) __________
Selling a product is easier because it is (35) __________
and customers do not have such different (36) __________
Aim: offer service beyond hopes of (37) __________
Important to: (a) keep informed & (b) (38) __________
One way to achieve this: (39) __________
(40) __________ must always be available for any queries.
Question 31: Lecture on _____
- Services marketing
- Product marketing
- Customer service
Question 32: ...tourism and _____
- Legal advice
- Banking
- Insurance
Question 33: ...points to _____
- Strength
- Weakness
- Price
Question 34: ...maintaining _____
- Good service
- Customer numbers
- High prices
Question 35: ...because it is _____
- Intangible
- Tangible
- Visible
Question 36: ...different _____
- Opinions
- Expectations
- Needs
Question 37: ...hopes of _____
- Clients
- Customers
- Staff
Question 38: ...(b) _____
- Always improve
- Constantly improve
- Maintain service
Question 39: One way to achieve this: _____
- Surveys
- Feedback
- Forms
Question 40: _____ must always be available
- A representative
- The manager
- The director
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 3.0 - 4.5: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng nghe cơ bản. Hãy tập trung nghe các đoạn hội thoại ngắn, làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi và luyện tập thường xuyên để cải thiện.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 5.0 - 6.5: Khá tốt! Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc nhận biết các thông tin gây nhiễu và luyện tập nghe các bài nói dài hơn với tốc độ nhanh hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 7.0+: Xuất sắc! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng nghe hiểu rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này bằng cách nghe các nguồn tài liệu đa dạng như tin tức, podcast để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
Listen to the audio and answer questions 1-40.
Question 1 - Circle the correct letter A-C.
Jenny's journey began in ...
- London.
- Singapore.
- Hong Kong.
Questions 2-4
Complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
LOST LUGGAGE CLAIM FORM
Name: Jenny Lee
Address: (2) __________ St, Riverside
Telephone number: (3) __________
Arrived on: Flight QA 392
Connecting from: Flight (4) __________
Question 2: Address
- 331 East 67th
- 311 East 76th
- 333 West 67th
Question 3: Telephone number
- 9301 4269
- 9031 4296
- 9301 2469
Question 4: Connecting from Flight
- CX 912
- Cathay Pacific 921
- Cathay Pacific 912
Questions 5-7 - Circle the correct letter A-C.
5. Which of the drawings resembles Jenny's bag?

- A
- B
- C
6. Which extra feature does Jenny identify?
- black colour
- wheels
- a metal handle
7. What time should Jenny's bag arrive?
- 5:50 pm
- 6:10 pm
- 7:50 pm
Question 8
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for the answer.
When Jenny picks up the bag, she has to (8) __________ in person.
- sign a form
- clear customs
- pay a fee
Questions 9-10
Name TWO things that the agent advises Jenny to bring.
1. (9) __________
2. (10) __________
Question 9: First item to bring
- Passport
- Credit card
- Ticket
Question 10: Second item to bring
- Claim receipt
- Boarding pass
- Baggage claim number
Questions 11-12
Complete the notice below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
ATS Ticketing
Box Office Hours (Regency Theatre):
Mon - Thurs: (11) __________
Friday, Saturday: 10 am - 8 pm
Internet Address: (12) __________
Question 11: Mon - Thurs hours
- 10am to 5pm
- 9am to 5pm
- 10am to 6pm
Question 12: Internet Address
- www.atstickets.com
- www.atstix.com
- www.atsticketing.com
Questions 13-15
Indicate the number (1-4) to press for information on each of the following.
(13) __________ Symphony Orchestra
(14) __________ Classical Ballet
(15) __________ Formula One Grand Prix
Question 13: Symphony Orchestra
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Question 14: Classical Ballet
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Question 15: Formula One Grand Prix
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Questions 16-20
Fill in the information about Formula One Grand Prix Tickets.
FORMULA ONE GRAND PRIX TICKETS
Dates: (16) __________
Ticket prices:
Saturday (concession rate) (17) __________
Grandstand ticket (4 days) (18) __________
Gate opening time Saturday and Sunday: (19) __________
Booking fee per ticket: (20) __________
Question 16: Dates
- 10th-14th March
- 10th-13th March
- 11th-14th March
Question 17: Saturday (concession rate)
- $25
- $35
- $45
Question 18: Grandstand ticket (4 days)
- $199
- $259
- $299
Question 19: Gate opening time
- 7:00 am
- 7:30 am
- 8:00 am
Question 20: Booking fee
- $2.00
- $2.50
- $3.00
Questions 21-23
Match the 3 speakers (21-23) with the background information below (A-G).
COMMITTEE MEMBERS' BACKGROUND AND EXPERIENCE
A. has done film reviews
B. currently in third year
C. gaining course credit for festival project
D. has made films
E. enrolled in Media Studies
F. works as a journalist
G. has film club experience
21. Anna
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
22. Veronica
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
23. Chris
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
Questions 24-28 - Circle the correct letter A-C.
24. The total number of films in the festival each year is...
- five
- three
- twelve
25. Who chooses the films for the festival?
- the committee members
- the international Students' Society
- independent distributors
26. During the intermission, who is interviewed on camera?
- journalism students
- members of the audience
- the organising committee
27. Of the films shown in the festival, ...
- none is in English.
- most are dubbed.
- many have subtitles.
28. The festival did not make a profit last year because of ...
- poor weather.
- high price of admission.
- lack of publicity.
Questions 29-30
Complete the following using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
INTERNATIONAL FILM FESTIVAL
Planning Overview
| Task: | To be completed by: |
| (29) __________ | 1 March |
| obtain sponsorship and advertising | 15 March |
| (30) __________ | 31 March |
| print and distribute posters | April |
Question 29:
- Select films
- Choose venue
- Set budget
Question 30:
- Write program
- Design program
- Print program
Questions 31-34
Complete the summary using NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.
Construction of a reed bed
Rectangular hole 1 metre deep lined with (31) __________
System of perforated tubing embedded in gravel.
(32) __________ planted in bed

Process
- Sewage flows (33) __________ from tank into reed bed.
- Water is (34) __________ then released.
Question 31: ...lined with _____
- Clay
- Plastic
- Sand
Question 32: _____ planted in bed
- Weeds
- Reeds
- Seeds
Question 33: Sewage flows _____
- Overground
- Through pipes
- Underground
Question 34: Water is _____
- Cleaned
- Filtered
- Tested
Questions 35-38
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Environmental benefits of reed beds
- produce good quality (35) __________ for farming use
- provide a (36) __________ for birds and animals
Advantages over conventional system
- lower (37) __________ costs
- efficiency (38) __________ with time
Question 35: ...produce good quality _____
- Water
- Soil
- Compost
Question 36: ...provide a _____
- Habitat
- Home
- Nest
Question 37: ...lower _____ costs
- Labour
- Running
- Maintenance
Question 38: ...efficiency _____
- Improves
- Increases
- Decreases
Questions 39-40
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.
39. Name ONE group which has opposed the introduction of reed bed technology.
- Manufacturers
- Politicians
- Engineers
40. Give ONE concern about reed bed systems raised by students in the question period.
- Cost
- Land
- Efficiency
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 3.0 - 4.5: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng nghe cơ bản. Hãy tập trung nghe các đoạn hội thoại ngắn, làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi và luyện tập thường xuyên để cải thiện.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 5.0 - 6.5: Khá tốt! Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc nhận biết các thông tin gây nhiễu và luyện tập nghe các bài nói dài hơn với tốc độ nhanh hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 7.0+: Xuất sắc! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng nghe hiểu rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này bằng cách nghe các nguồn tài liệu đa dạng như tin tức, podcast để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
Listen to the audio and answer questions 1-40.
Questions 1–2 - Choose the correct letter A–C.
1. The travel agent…
- thinks Europe is a good destination
- can personally recommend Vancouver
- does not think America is a good choice.
2. The customer:
- is going to Europe next year
- knows people living in Canada
- wants to go to the warmest place.
Questions 3–6
Complete the form using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.
The Travel Depot flight reservations
Customer's name: Jim (3) __________
Address: 10 Allen Road, Oldham
Destination: Vancouver, Canada
Contact number: 0151 (4) __________ (home number)
Flight number: (5) __________
Length of stay (nights): (6) __________
Question 3: Customer's name: Jim _____
- Richards
- Richardson
- Richard
Question 4: Contact number: 0151 _____
- 624 3951
- 642 3915
- 624 3915
Question 5: Flight number
- AC991
- AC919
- AC199
Question 6: Length of stay (nights)
- 13
- 14
- 15
Questions 7–10
Complete the sentences below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER.
7. The travel agent recommends some form of (7) __________ cover for peace of mind.
8. The best cover is offered with the (8) __________ Star policy.
9. The client can see a play at the theatre for $ (9) __________.
10. The flight and the insurance together cost £ (10) __________.
Question 7: ...recommends some form of _____ cover
- health
- travel
- insurance
Question 8: ...with the _____ Star policy.
- Gold
- Silver
- Super
Question 9: ...at the theatre for $_____
- 12
- 20
- 22
Question 10: ...together cost £_____
- 467
- 476
- 477
Questions 11–15 - Choose the correct letter, A–D.
11. Who is the speaker addressing?
- Property agents
- People selling houses
- People in the countryside
- People buying second homes
12. Rental property in the city...
- is very easy to find
- is becoming more difficult to find
- is an investment opportunity
- is often the only option
13. Lisa Brown believes...
- most people will own their own home at some time
- there is a psychological factor in owning your own home
- fewer people are interested in owning a house
- most young people need a deposit before they can buy a house.
14. Property in the countryside is becoming more popular because...
- people want to get away from the city
- some parts of the city are becoming overcrowded
- the home office means people don't need to go to work
- public transport is beginning to serve outlying areas.
15. What kind of properties does the speaker specialise in?
- Commercial
- Investment
- First homes
- Rural
Questions 16–20
Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER.
16. What end of the market are the properties?
- The high end
- The low end
- The middle
17. What does the speaker compare buying houses with?
- A marriage
- A gamble
- A race
18. What kind of equity can be the result of buying a property when the market is high?
- Positive equity
- Negative equity
- No equity
19. How does she describe the feeling of successful property investment?
- Rewarding
- Like a drug
- Exciting
20. How can you ask the speaker a question?
- By telephone
- By text message
- By email
Questions 21–24
Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER.
21. How long is the radio show?
- One hour
- Two hours
- 90 minutes
22. What is the general focus of the programme?
- Saving animals
- Wildlife conservation
- Endangered species
23. Where is Professor Ripley from?
- America
- England
- South Africa
24. What animals do people most associate with the African bush?
- Lions and tigers
- Lions and leopards
- Lions and elephants
Questions 25–28
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER.
| Threats | Natural habitat | Population | |
|---|---|---|---|
| African lions | bush | Estimated to be (25) __________ | |
| Tigers | (26) __________ | forests and plains | fewer than (27) __________ |
| Snow leopards | Expansion of (28) __________ | high-altitude pastures |
Question 25: African lions population
- 1,200
- 12,000
- 20,000
Question 26: Tigers threats
- Habitat loss
- Poaching
- Climate change
Question 27: Tigers population
- 3,000
- 3,500
- 4,000
Question 28: Snow leopards threats
- Human settlement
- Farming
- Livestock farming
Questions 29–30 - Choose the correct letter, A–D.
29. Where is the WWF currently funding projects to help the snow leopard?
- Nepal, Pakistan and Bhutan
- Nepal and Pakistan
- Bhutan and Nepal
- Pakistan and Bhutan
30. Listeners should telephone...
- immediately if they want to put forward an opinion
- during the commercial break
- in 10 minutes if they want to ask the professor
- if they have information regarding pumas or jaguars.
Question 31 - Choose the correct letter, A–C.
31. The students are expecting...
- to hear a lecture on overpopulation
- Mr Mackenzie
- a guest speaker
Questions 32–36
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
| Statistic / Fact | Unemployment | Unrealised earnings | Literacy programmes |
|---|---|---|---|
| 42 million adults (32) __________ | — | — | — |
| 50 million adults have reading ability of a (33) __________ year-old | — | — | — |
| Increasing by around (34) __________ million per year | $ (35) __________ billion | 237 billion US dollars | $ (36) __________ billion |
Question 32: 42 million adults _____
- are illiterate
- cannot read
- are unemployed
Question 33: ...reading ability of a _____ year-old
- 10
- 11
- 12
Question 34: Increasing by around _____ million
- 1
- 1.5
- 2
Question 35: Unemployment costs $_____ billion
- 20
- 220
- 224
Question 36: Literacy programmes cost $_____ billion
- 5
- 6
- 7
Question 37 - Choose the correct letter, A–D.
37. Illiteracy is increasing because many young learners are...
- not being taught how to break words into sounds
- given word lists which are too long
- not challenged enough in the classroom.
- not motivated enough.
Questions 38–40
Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
English is made up of 26 letters, with 44 (38) __________ and 70 ways of (39) __________. Unsuccessful teaching practices persist, however, because reading is (40) __________.
Question 38: ...with 44 _____
- letters
- speech sounds
- spellings
Question 39: ...70 ways of _____
- spelling them
- writing them
- saying them
Question 40: ...because reading is _____
- not natural
- not easy
- not fun
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 3.0 - 4.5: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng nghe cơ bản. Hãy tập trung nghe các đoạn hội thoại ngắn, làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi và luyện tập thường xuyên để cải thiện.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 5.0 - 6.5: Khá tốt! Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc nhận biết các thông tin gây nhiễu và luyện tập nghe các bài nói dài hơn với tốc độ nhanh hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 7.0+: Xuất sắc! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng nghe hiểu rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này bằng cách nghe các nguồn tài liệu đa dạng như tin tức, podcast để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
Listen to the audio and answer questions 1-40.
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Details of Order
| Party Host | Example: Customer's oldest daughter |
| Occasion | 18th birthday |
| Number of Guests Invited | (1) __________ |
| Customer Budget | (2) __________ £800 |
| Marquee Size | (3) __________ X 9 metres |
| (4) __________ Cost | £450 |
| (5) __________ | £150 |
| Lighting Cost | approximately £ (6) __________ |
| Dates Marquee Required | Set-up date (7) __________ To be taken down on June 7th |
Question 1: Number of Guests Invited
- 70
- 80
- 90
Question 2: Customer Budget
- Minimum limit
- Maximum limit
- Approximate
Question 3: Marquee Size
- 4.5
- 5.5
- 6.5
Question 4: Cost (£450)
- Hire only
- Hire and installation
- Installation only
Question 5: Cost (£150)
- Flooring cost
- Cost of heating
- Cost of carpeting
Question 6: Lighting Cost
- 45
- 50
- 55
Question 7: Set-up date
- June 4th
- June 5th
- June 6th
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Customer Details
| Name | (8) __________ |
| Postcode | (9) __________ |
| Contact Number | (10) __________ |
Question 8: Name
- Jenny Lakewell
- Jennie Lacwell
- Jenny Lacewell
Question 9: Postcode
- CV6 TL3
- CV6 3TL
- CV3 TL6
Question 10: Contact Number
- 07944 325883
- 07499 325883
- 07944 352883
Label the map below of a typical medieval castle. Write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 11 - 15.

11. Chapel (11) __________
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
12. Great Hall
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
13. Great Chambers
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
14. Bakehouse
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
15. Stables
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
16. Medieval castles...
- shared a common design.
- were each unique.
- had the same methods of fortification in common.
17. The early medieval Keep served as...
- a prison and fortified tower.
- a fortified tower and living area.
- a fortified entrance to the inner castle area.
18. In later medieval castles, the Keep...
- evolved into a set of different buildings.
- was used purely for accommodation.
- played a less significant role in the castle’s domestic life.
19. Underground dungeons were built in response to...
- a shift in the medieval belief system.
- the Keep being no longer used for prisoners.
- a call for harsher treatment of prisoners.
20. The least effective line of defence was...
- the portcullis.
- the drawbridge.
- the barbican.
21. Julie and Dave thought the lecture...
- gave a new insight into Shakespeare's style.
- offered a thought-provoking view on Shakespeare.
- explained Shakespeare's belief in ghosts.
22. Hamlet was a play...
- which reflected popular belief in the supernatural.
- that recorded historical events.
- seemingly in conflict with accepted beliefs.
23. In the time of James I...
- a belief in ghosts was not tolerated.
- more people believed in ghosts.
- certain religious beliefs were not acceptable.
24. Shakespeare introduced ghosts into plays...
- because he believed in a spirit world.
- as a theatrical device.
- to provoke religious debate.
25. Shakespeare's audience would probably have...
- secretly approved of a supernatural content in plays.
- shown approval for plays with a supernatural content.
- disapproved of the inclusion of ghosts in plays.
What does Julie say about the following subjects? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 26-30.
A. scornful, dismissive
B. open-minded
C. believing
26. witches / astrology
- A
- B
- C
27. ghosts
- A
- B
- C
28. UFOs/aliens
- A
- B
- C
29. premonitions
- A
- B
- C
30. telepathy
- A
- B
- C
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Darwin is credited with having (31) __________ popular beliefs about Man's creation. However, Alfred Russell Wallace simultaneously came up with an (32) __________ to Darwin. Unfortunately for Wallace, Darwin seems to have been given the (33) __________ for the theory of evolution. Darwin's theory (34) __________, upsetting the religious authorities of his time. Today, it is often accepted that Man is a product (35) __________ and not spontaneous creation.
Question 31: ...having _____ popular beliefs
- revolutionised
- single-handedly revolutionised
- changed
Question 32: ...came up with an _____
- identical theory
- alternative theory
- opposing theory
Question 33: ...given the _____
- credit
- sole credit
- main credit
Question 34: Darwin's theory _____
- was controversial
- proved extremely controversial
- was not accepted
Question 35: ...a product _____
- of development
- of evolution
- of science
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
The absence of a (36) __________ might be seen by some to discredit Darwin's theory.
Finding an evolutionary bridge would provide undeniable (37) __________ the theory of evolution.
When (38) __________ of the Piltdown Man was first unearthed, it seemed Darwin's theory was no longer in doubt.
In fact, the hoax proved (39) __________ that scientists and the Press believed in its validity.
After 40 years, Piltdown Man (40) __________ as being no more than a fake.
Question 36: The absence of a _____
- fossil record
- missing link
- clear evidence
Question 37: ...undeniable _____
- proof of
- evidence for
- support for
Question 38: When _____ was unearthed...
- the jawbone
- the skull
- the skeleton
Question 39: ...the hoax proved _____
- convincing
- so convincing
- very convincing
Question 40: Piltdown Man _____ as a fake
- was declared
- was exposed
- was revealed
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 3.0 - 4.5: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng nghe cơ bản. Hãy tập trung nghe các đoạn hội thoại ngắn, làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi và luyện tập thường xuyên để cải thiện.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 5.0 - 6.5: Khá tốt! Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc nhận biết các thông tin gây nhiễu và luyện tập nghe các bài nói dài hơn với tốc độ nhanh hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 7.0+: Xuất sắc! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng nghe hiểu rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này bằng cách nghe các nguồn tài liệu đa dạng như tin tức, podcast để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
Listen to the audio and answer questions 1-40.
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
1. What is Harry’s problem?
- He doesn’t want to sell his things.
- He needs to decide what to do with his possessions.
- He wants to take everything to England.
2. Which of the items below does Harry want to sell?

- A
- B
- C
3. Where is Harry going to advertise his books for sale?
- In the university bookshop.
- In the student newspaper.
- In the economics department.
4. Andrea thinks it is unlikely students will buy the furniture because ...
- they’re all doing the same thing.
- they live at home.
- it’s the summer vacation.
5. Andrea thinks that a second-hand shop ...
- may not pay well.
- may not take your goods.
- may only take free goods.
Complete Harry’s notes using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.
THINGS TO DO:
(6) __________ furniture etc. in Trading Post.
(7) __________ or sell kitchen things.
Get (8) __________ first from second-hand shop.
Give clothes to (9) __________ shop.
(10) __________ fridge and microwave to Andrea.
Question 6:
- Advertise
- List
- Post
Question 7:
- Donate
- Give away
- Throw away
Question 8:
- Quote
- Price
- Estimate
Question 9:
- Gift
- Donation
- Charity
Question 10:
- Give
- Sell
- Lend
Complete the Fitness Centre brochure using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.
Semnoaks
HEALTH & FITNESS CENTRE
Located conveniently at the (11) __________ of Marion Street and Giles Street.
WE ARE OPEN FOR YOU
Monday - Friday (12) __________ am to 9:30 pm
Saturday 9:00 am to 4:00 pm
Sunday 9:00 am to (13) __________ pm
WET AREA
Aqua aerobic (14) __________ for all ages and levels.
(15) __________ lessons on weekday afternoons and weekend mornings.
SUPER-CIRCUIT CLASSES
A cardio-workout class that is easy to (16) __________.
LARGE WELL-EQUIPPED GYM
Have a personal fitness assessment & individual (17) __________ to suit you.
CARDIO-VASCULAR ROOM
Watch your favourite (18) __________ while you exercise.
TWO FOR ONE SPECIAL MEMBERSHIP PLUS (19) __________ TRIAL OFFER
ONLY $110 each for a whole (20) __________ months! Get ready for summer.
Question 11: Located at the _____
- Corner
- Intersection
- Junction
Question 12: Mon-Fri open at _____ am
- 5
- 6
- 7
Question 13: Sunday open until _____ pm
- 1
- 2
- 3
Question 14: Aqua aerobic _____
- Lessons
- Classes
- Sessions
Question 15: _____ lessons
- Swimming/swim
- Diving
- Water polo
Question 16: ...easy to _____
- Learn
- Follow
- Join
Question 17: ...individual _____
- Program/programme
- Plan
- Schedule
Question 18: ...favourite _____
- TV shows
- Movies
- Music videos
Question 19: ...PLUS _____ TRIAL OFFER
- Free
- Special
- Limited
Question 20: ...a whole _____ months!
- 3
- 6
- 12
Complete the notes below using ONE WORD ONLY.
THE CANADIAN FOOD MARKET
- Understanding subtle (21) __________ is important.
- Toronto has large (22) __________ and Asian populations.
- Growth of Mediterranean, Caribbean, South East Asian and (23) __________ foods.
- Demand for new (24) __________ to prepare these foods.
- Seminar to compare food trends with (25) __________ and UK.
Question 21: ...subtle _____
- Differences
- Changes
- Variations
Question 22: ...large _____ and Asian populations
- European
- Italian
- Hispanic
Question 23: ...and _____ foods
- Mexican
- Indian
- Chinese
Question 24: ...new _____ to prepare
- Recipes
- Ingredients
- Cookbooks
Question 25: ...trends with _____ and UK
- America
- Europe
- Australia
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.
RETAIL FOOD SECTOR
| TREND | COMMENTS |
|---|---|
| INTEREST IN HEALTHY FOOD | • Salads eaten in Canadian (26) __________ • Shoppers check (27) __________ and nutritional info |
| NEW WAY OF LABELLING MEAT | • Labelled by (28) __________ technique |
| 'MOBILE MEALS' | • (29) __________ increase in snack sales • Growth in (30) __________ snacks |
Question 26: ...in Canadian _____
- Homes
- Restaurants
- Supermarkets
Question 27: ...shoppers check _____
- Calories
- Fat
- Sugar
Question 28: ...labelled by _____ technique
- Cooking
- Cutting
- Preparation
Question 29: _____ increase in snack sales
- 40 percent
- 14 percent
- 44 percent
Question 30: ...growth in _____ snacks
- Organic
- Healthy
- Convenient
Complete the lecture notes using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
PUBLIC SPEAKING
Public speaking means speaking to (31) __________ people
Lack of confidence usually due to (32) __________
A. PLANNING
First part is (33) __________
This includes: (34) __________ and length of talk
(35) __________ with the audience is very important
B. VOICE
Bigger audience requires (36) __________ speech
Project your voice - rehearse and (37) __________
Varied tone and rhythm give (38) __________
C. BODY LANGUAGE
Think about your (39) __________ and gestures
Scratching and fiddling (40) __________ and irritates your audience
Question 31: ...speaking to _____ people
- 10 or more
- 20 or more
- a group of
Question 32: ...due to _____
- lack of confidence
- lack of practice
- anxiety
Question 33: First part is _____
- preparation
- planning
- practice
Question 34: ...includes _____ and length
- topic
- subject
- content
Question 35: _____ with the audience
- Interaction
- Eye contact
- Connection
Question 36: ...requires _____ speech
- a slower
- a louder
- a faster
Question 37: ...rehearse and _____
- record yourself
- time yourself
- ask for feedback
Question 38: ...give _____
- emotion
- meaning
- emphasis
Question 39: ...think about your _____
- appearance
- posture
- position
Question 40: ...this _____ and irritates
- distracts
- annoys
- disturbs
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 3.0 - 4.5: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng nghe cơ bản. Hãy tập trung nghe các đoạn hội thoại ngắn, làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi và luyện tập thường xuyên để cải thiện.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 5.0 - 6.5: Khá tốt! Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc nhận biết các thông tin gây nhiễu và luyện tập nghe các bài nói dài hơn với tốc độ nhanh hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 7.0+: Xuất sắc! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng nghe hiểu rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này bằng cách nghe các nguồn tài liệu đa dạng như tin tức, podcast để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
LISTENING TEST 8
Listen to the audio and answer questions 1-40.
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
| Mobile Phone Model | Pricing | Appearance | Camera/Battery | Extra Notes |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Example: Apple iPhone 7S 32GB | £ (1) __________ on a fixed 24-month contract | Very (2) __________ weighing only 149 grammes | 8-megapixel camera, 8 hours talk time, 200 hours standby | Includes (3) __________ service and GPS |
| LG G8 | £40 monthly for a fixed 24-month contract | (4) __________ than the iPhone, weighing 149 grammes | 13-megapixel camera, 19 hours talk time, (5) __________ hours standby | Quad HD screen |
| (6) __________ | £20 for handset, Pay-as-you-go contract | Surprisingly light, at 131 grammes | Camera lacks (7) __________, 2.5 hours talk time, 75 hours standby | Flip top phone, Hard keys |
Question 1: Apple iPhone 7S 32GB - Pricing
- 20.50 a month
- 22.50 a month
- 25.20 a month
Question 2: Apple iPhone 7S 32GB - Appearance
- sleek and lightweight
- slim and light
- modern and lightweight
Question 3: Apple iPhone 7S 32GB - Extra Notes
- a voice-activated
- a voice-recorded
- a voice-command
Question 4: LG G8 - Appearance
- Much heavier
- A bit heavier
- Slightly heavier
Question 5: LG G8 - Standby time
- 556
- 565
- 655
Question 6: Mobile Phone Model
- Samsung DM S401
- Samsung DM S410
- Samsung DM S140
Question 7: Camera lacks _____
- zoom
- a flash
- focus
CUSTOMER ORDER FORM
| Models on order | Date due in store | Customer name | Contact number |
|---|---|---|---|
| Apple iPhone 7S 32GB | (8) __________ - April 8th | (9) __________ | (10) __________ |
Question 8: Date due in store
- within the week
- end of the week
- next week
Question 9: Customer name
- Janet Johnson
- Janice Johnston
- Janet Johnston
Question 10: Contact number
- 0799 678 305 8378
- 0796 678 305 8378
- 0799 687 305 8378
Label the floor plan below. Write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 11-15.

11. Unisex toilet (11) __________
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
12. Eye wash/ emergency shower
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
13. Chest freezer
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
14. Walk-in cooler
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
15. Walk-in freezer
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
16. The speaker is assuming that laboratory workers...
- are unfamiliar with the Health and Safety Procedure.
- are fully aware of the Health and Safety Procedure.
- need to be reminded about the Health and Safety Procedure.
17. All experiments...
- are at the discretion of the Health and Safety Officer.
- need written approval.
- only need referral in special cases.
18. If projects are not approved by the Health and Safety Officer...
- an alternative project has to be undertaken.
- the project may be reconsidered if alterations are made.
- details must be written down as a standard procedure.
19. It is not permissible to remove...
- waste materials from the laboratory.
- samples and clothing from the laboratory.
- contaminated objects from the laboratory.
20. Contaminated objects e.g. needles...
- need to be immediately removed.
- are to be stored in special containers overnight.
- need to be removed at the end of the working day.
21. Annette thinks the lecture will...
- not be of personal interest.
- be about an irrelevant subject.
- coincide with another lecture.
22. Mark believes that microchip implant technology...
- will benefit everyone.
- is likely not to be well-received.
- will have great potential.
23. In Mark's opinion, microchip implant technology...
- was not really predicted by science fiction.
- has not yet left the realms of science fiction.
- was fairly accurately predicted in science fiction.
24. Implanting a microchip is...
- completely painless.
- barely noticeable.
- quite painful.
25. Microchips are...
- fitted into the thumbnail.
- placed beneath the skin's layer.
- placed onto the skin's surface.
What does Annette say about the following? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 26-30.
A. She agrees.
B. She is undecided.
C. She disagrees.
26. turning on electrical appliances
- A
- B
- C
27. accessing medical records
- A
- B
- C
28. security systems
- A
- B
- C
29. finding lost pets
- A
- B
- C
30. a GPS system
- A
- B
- C
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Drone technology is (31) __________ amongst people of all ages.
Whether for work-related or purely (32) __________ use, everyone is fascinated by drones.
In the US, drone technology is a booming (33) __________.
E-commerce delivery is probably the most novel and (34) __________ use for drones.
Although Amazon was keen on a drone-based (35) __________ plans have stopped.
Question 31: Drone technology is _____
- becoming popular
- catching on
- a new trend
Question 32: ...or purely _____ use
- recreational
- personal
- hobby
Question 33: ...a booming _____
- market
- business
- new industry
Question 34: ...novel and _____ use
- interesting
- ground-breaking
- exciting
Question 35: ...a drone-based _____
- delivery service
- courier service
- postal service
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Drone-based delivery services fail to conform to US (36) __________.
Due to (37) __________ laws in the UK, drones may soon become big business.
The UK has a successful venture into drone-based (38) __________.
Problems have arisen due to people not confining drones to a (39) __________.
If (40) __________ are brought in, the drone industry will not grow quickly.
Question 36: ...conform to US _____
- aviation laws
- aviation rules
- aviation regulations
Question 37: Due to _____ laws...
- relaxed
- less strict
- more relaxed
Question 38: ...drone-based _____
- aerial photography
- surveillance
- filming
Question 39: ...confining their drones to a _____
- private area
- controlled area
- designated area
Question 40: If _____ are brought in...
- stricter regulations
- new laws
- strict rules
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 3.0 - 4.5: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng nghe cơ bản. Hãy tập trung nghe các đoạn hội thoại ngắn, làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi và luyện tập thường xuyên để cải thiện.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 5.0 - 6.5: Khá tốt! Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc nhận biết các thông tin gây nhiễu và luyện tập nghe các bài nói dài hơn với tốc độ nhanh hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
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Reading Passage 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 - 13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
Money Transfers by Mobile
A. The ping of a text message has never sounded so sweet. In what is being touted as a world first, Kenya's biggest mobile operator is allowing subscribers to send cash to other phone users by SMS. Known as M-Pesa, or mobile money, the service is expected to revolutionise banking in a country where more than 80% of people are excluded from the formal financial sector. Apart from transferring cash - a service much in demand among urban Kenyans supporting relatives in rural areas - customers of the Safaricom network will be able to keep up to 50,000 shillings (£370) in a "virtual account" on their handsets.
B. Developed by Vodafone, which holds a 35% share in Safaricom, M-Pesa was formally launched in Kenya two weeks ago. More than 10,000 people have signed up for the service, with around 8 million shillings transferred so far, mostly in tiny denominations. Safaricom's executives are confident that growth will be strong in Kenya, and later across Africa. “We are effectively giving people ATM cards without them ever having to open a real bank account,” said Michael Joseph, chief executive of Safaricom, who called the money transfer concept the “next big thing” in mobile telephony.
C. M-Pesa's is simple. There is no need for a new handset or SIM card. To send money, you hand over the cash to a registered agent - typically a retailer - who credits your virtual account. You then send between 100 shillings (74p) and 35,000 shillings (£259) via text message to the desired recipient - even someone on a different mobile network - who cashes it at an agent by entering a secret code and showing ID. A commission of up to 170 shillings (£1.25) is paid by the recipient but it compares favourably with fees levied by the major banks, whose services are too expensive for most of the population.
D. Mobile phone growth in Kenya, as in most of Africa, has been remarkable, even among the rural poor. In June 1999, Kenya had 15,000 mobile subscribers. Today, it has nearly 8 million out of a population of 35 million, and the two operators' networks are as extensive as the access to banks is limited. Safaricom says it is not so much competing with financial services companies as filling a void. In time, M-Pesa will allow people to borrow and repay money, and make purchases. Companies will be able to pay salaries directly into workers' phones - something that has already attracted the interest of larger employers, such as the tea companies, whose workers often have to be paid in cash as they do not have bank accounts. There are concerns about security, but Safaricom insists that even if someone's phone is stolen, the PIN system prevents unauthorised withdrawals. Mr. Joseph said the only danger is sending cash to the wrong mobile number and the recipient redeeming it straight away.
E. The project is being watched closely by mobile operators around the world as a way of targeting the multibillion pound international cash transfer industry long dominated by companies such as Western Union and Moneygram. Remittances sent from nearly 200 million migrant workers to developing countries totalled £102 billion last year, according to the World Bank. The GSM Association, which represents more than 700 mobile operators worldwide, believes this could quadruple by 2012 if transfers by SMS become the norm. Vodafone has entered a partnership with Citigroup that will soon allow Kenyans in the UK to send money home via text message. The charge for sending £50 is expected to be about £3, less than a third of what some traditional services charge.
The text has 5 paragraphs (A - E).
Which paragraph contains each of the following pieces of information?
| 1. (1) __________ | A possible security problem |
| 2. (2) __________ | The cost of M-Pesa |
| 3. (3) __________ | An international service similar to M-Pesa |
| 4. (4) __________ | The fact that most Kenyans do not have a bank account |
Question 1: A possible security problem
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Question 2: The cost of M-Pesa
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Question 3: An international service similar to M-Pesa
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Question 4: The fact that most Kenyans do not have a bank account
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each gap.
5. Safaricom is the (5) __________ mobile phone company in Kenya.
6. An M-Pesa account needs to be credited by (6) __________.
7. (7) __________ companies are particularly interested in using M-Pesa.
8. Companies like Moneygram and Western Union have (8) __________ the international money transfer market.
Question 5: Safaricom is the _____
- biggest
- largest
- main
Question 6: ...credited by _____
- a retailer
- a registered agent
- a mobile operator
Question 7: _____ companies are interested
- Coffee
- Large
- Tea
Question 8: ...have _____ the market
- long dominated
- recently entered
- failed in
Do the statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
9. Most Kenyans working in urban areas have relatives in rural areas.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
10. So far, most of the people using M-Pesa have used it to send small amounts of money.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
11. M-Pesa can only be used by people using one phone network.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
12. M-Pesa can be used to buy products and services.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
13. The GSM Association is a consumer organisation.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
Reading Passage 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 - 26, which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.
Park the Car Permanently
A. More than a million people are likely to be disappointed by their experience of the Government's attempts to improve the democratic process. They may have signed an online petition against road pricing, but ministers are determined to push ahead with plans to make it more expensive to drive. The Government is convinced that this is the only way to reduce congestion and the environmental damage caused by motoring.
B. Why wait until you are forced off the road by costly charges? You may enjoy the convenience of your car, but the truth is that for huge numbers of people, owning a car makes little financial sense. You'd be far better off giving it up and relying on other forms of transport. "I'm 47 and I've never owned a car, despite having a job that requires me to travel all over the South-East to visit clients," says Donnachadh McCarthy, an environmental expert who specialises in advising people how to be greener. "A car is a huge financial commitment, as well as being a psychological addiction. Not owning a vehicle is far more practical than most people realise."
C. It may seem as if cars have never been cheaper. After all, it is now possible to buy a brand new car for less than £4,800 - the Perodua Kelisa, if you're interested. There are plenty of decent vehicles you can buy straight from the showroom for between £5,000 and £7,000. Of course, if you buy second-hand, the prices will be even lower. However, the falling purchase price of cars masks the fact that it has never been more expensive to own and run a vehicle. The estimate is that the cost of running a car rose by more than ten per cent last year alone. The annual cost of running your own vehicle is put at an average of £5,539, or £107 a week. While drivers who do less or more than the average mileage each year will spend correspondingly less or more, many of the costs of car ownership are fixed - and therefore unavoidable.
D. Depreciation - the fact that your vehicle loses a large chunk of its resale value each year - is one problem, accounting for £2,420 a year. The cost of finance packages, which most people have to resort to to pay for at least part of the price of a new car, has also been rising - to an average of £1,040 a year. Then there's insurance, maintenance, tax, and breakdown insurance, all of which will cost you broadly the same amount, however many miles you do. Only fuel costs are truly variable. While petrol prices are the most visible indicator of the cost of running a car, for the typical driver they account for less than one fifth of the real costs each year. In other words, leaving aside all the practical and psychological barriers to giving up your car, in financial terms, doing so makes sense for many people.
E. Take the cost of public transport, for example. In London, the most expensive city in the UK, the most expensive annual travel card, allowing travel in any zone at any time, costs just over £1,700. You could give up your car and still have thousands of pounds to spare to spend on occasional car hire. In fact, assuming that you have the most expensive travel card in London, you could hire a cheap car from a company, such as easyCar for about 30 weeks a year, and still be better off overall than if you own your own vehicle. Not that car hire is necessarily the most cost-effective option for people who are prepared to do without a car but may still need to drive occasionally.
F. Streetcar, one of several "car clubs" with growing numbers of members, reckons that using its vehicles twice a week, every week, for a year, would cost you just £700. Streetcar's model works very similarly to those of its main rivals, Citycarclub and Whizzgo. These three companies, which now operate in 20 of Britain's towns and cities, charge their members a refundable deposit - £150 at Streetcar - and then provide them with an electronic smart card. This enables members to get into the vehicles, which are left parked in set locations, and the keys are then found in the glove compartment. Members pay an hourly rate for the car - £4.95 is the cost at Streetcar - and return it to the same spot, or to a different designated parking place.
G. Car sharing is an increasingly popular option for people making the same journeys regularly - to and from work, for example. Many companies run schemes that help colleagues who live near to each other and work in the same place to contact each other so they can share the journey to work. Liftshare and Carshare are two national organisations that maintain online databases of people who would be prepared to team up. Other people may be able to replace part or all of their journey to work - or any journeys, for that matter - with low-cost transport such as a bicycle, or even by just walking. The more you can reduce your car use, however you gain access to it, the more you will save.
The text has 7 paragraphs (A - G).
Which paragraph does each of the following headings best fit?
| 14. (14) __________ | Don't wait! |
| 15. (15) __________ | Team up |
| 16. (16) __________ | Join a club |
| 17. (17) __________ | Use public transport |
Question 14: Don't wait!
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
Question 15: Team up
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
Question 16: Join a club
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
Question 17: Use public transport
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
According to the text, FIVE of the following statements are true. Choose the first true statement.
Question 18:
- McCarthy claims people can become addicted to using cars.
- The cost of using a car rose by over ten per cent last year.
- Most British people borrow money to help buy cars.
- Many people need cars to drive in London occasionally.
- Streetcar operates in over 20 cities in Britain.
- Streetcar's cars must be left at specific locations.
- Car sharing is becoming more popular with people who live and work near each other.
- The government wants to encourage people to go to work on foot or by bicycle.
Question 19: Choose the second true statement.
- McCarthy claims people can become addicted to using cars.
- The cost of using a car rose by over ten per cent last year.
- Most British people borrow money to help buy cars.
- Many people need cars to drive in London occasionally.
- Streetcar operates in over 20 cities in Britain.
- Streetcar's cars must be left at specific locations.
- Car sharing is becoming more popular with people who live and work near each other.
- The government wants to encourage people to go to work on foot or by bicycle.
Question 20: Choose the third true statement.
- McCarthy claims people can become addicted to using cars.
- The cost of using a car rose by over ten per cent last year.
- Most British people borrow money to help buy cars.
- Many people need cars to drive in London occasionally.
- Streetcar operates in over 20 cities in Britain.
- Streetcar's cars must be left at specific locations.
- Car sharing is becoming more popular with people who live and work near each other.
- The government wants to encourage people to go to work on foot or by bicycle.
Question 21: Choose the fourth true statement.
- McCarthy claims people can become addicted to using cars.
- The cost of using a car rose by over ten per cent last year.
- Most British people borrow money to help buy cars.
- Many people need cars to drive in London occasionally.
- Streetcar operates in over 20 cities in Britain.
- Streetcar's cars must be left at specific locations.
- Car sharing is becoming more popular with people who live and work near each other.
- The government wants to encourage people to go to work on foot or by bicycle.
Question 22: Choose the fifth true statement.
- McCarthy claims people can become addicted to using cars.
- The cost of using a car rose by over ten per cent last year.
- Most British people borrow money to help buy cars.
- Many people need cars to drive in London occasionally.
- Streetcar operates in over 20 cities in Britain.
- Streetcar's cars must be left at specific locations.
- Car sharing is becoming more popular with people who live and work near each other.
- The government wants to encourage people to go to work on foot or by bicycle.
For each question, only ONE of the choices is correct.
23. The government has decided...
- not to follow protestors' suggestions.
- to become more democratic.
- to go ahead with charging drivers to use roads.
- Both A and C are correct
24. Cars are often...
- relatively cheap in Britain.
- relatively expensive to operate in Britain.
- sold second-hand in Britain.
- Both A and B are correct
25. Fuel costs...
- make up about 20% of the cost of running a car.
- depend on how far you drive.
- are related to the amount drivers pay for their cars.
- Both A and B are correct
26. Using public transport...
- will save money for British motorists, except in London.
- and renting a car part of the time can save money.
- costs Londoners about £1,700 a year.
Reading Passage 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27 - 40, which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.
Low-Cost Lamps Light Rural India
Until three months ago, life in this humble village without electricity would come to a halt after sunset. Inside his mud-and-clay home, Ganpat Jadhav’s three children used to study in the dim, smoky glow of a kerosene lamp, when their monthly fuel quota of four litres dried up in just a fortnight, they had to strain their eyes using the light from a cooking fire. That all changed with the installation of low-cost, energy-efficient lamps that are powered entirely by the sun. The lights were installed by the Grameen Surya Bijli Foundation (GSBF), an Indian non-governmental organisation focused on bringing light to rural India. Some 100,000 Indian villages do not yet have electricity. The GSBF lamps use LEDs - light emitting diodes - that are four times more efficient than a normal bulb. After a $55 installation cost, solar energy lights the lamp free of charge. LED lighting, like cell phones, is another example of a technology whose low cost could allow the rural poor to leap into the 21st century.
As many as 1.5 billion people - nearly 80 million in India alone - light their houses using kerosene as the primary lighting media. The fuel is dangerous, dirty, and - despite being subsidised - consumes nearly four per cent of a typical rural Indian household's budget. A recent report by the Intermediate Technology Development Group suggests that indoor air pollution from such lighting media results in 1.6 million deaths worldwide every year. LED lamps, or more specifically white LEDs, are believed to produce nearly 200 times more useful light than a kerosene lamp and almost 50 times the amount of useful light of a conventional bulb. "This technology can light an entire rural village with less energy than that used by a single conventional 100-watt light bulb," says Dave Irvine-Halliday, a professor of electrical engineering at the University of Calgary, Canada and the founder of Light up the World Foundation (LUTW). Founded in 1997, LUTW has used LED technology to bring light to nearly 10,000 homes in remote and disadvantaged corners of some 27 countries like India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Bolivia, and the Philippines.
The technology, which is not yet widely known in India, faces some scepticism here. “LED systems are revolutionising rural lighting, but this isn't a magic solution to the world's energy problems,” says Ashok Jhunjhunwala, head of the electrical engineering department at the Indian Institute of Technology, Madras. In a scenario in which nearly 60 per cent of India's rural population uses 180 million tons of biomass per year for cooking via primitive wood stoves - which are smoky and provide only 10-15 per cent efficiency in cooking -Jhunjhunwala emphasises the need for a clean energy source, not just for lighting but for other domestic purposes as well. The Indian government in April launched an ambitious project to bring electricity to 112,000 rural villages in the next decade. However, the remote locations of the village will make reaching this goal difficult. A. K. Lakhina, the chairman of India's Rural Electrification Corporation, says the Indian government recognises the potential of LED lighting powered by solar technology, but expressed reservations about its high costs. "If only LEDs weren't imported but manufactured locally," he says, "and in bulk."
The lamps installed in nearly 300 homes by GSBF cost nearly half the price of other solar lighting systems. Jasjeet Singh Chaddha, the founder of the NGO, currently imports his LEDs from China. He wants to set up an LED manufacturing unit and a solar panel manufacturing unit in India. If manufactured locally, the cost of his LED lamp could plummet to $22, as they will not incur heavy import duties. "We need close to $5 million for this," he says. Mr. Chaddha says he has also asked the government to exempt the lamps from such duties, but to no avail. An entrepreneur who made his money in plastics, Chaddha, has poured his own money into the project, providing the initial installations free of charge. As he looks to make the project self-sustainable, he recognises that it is only urban markets -which have also shown an avid interest in LED lighting - that can pay. The rural markets in India cannot afford it, he says, until the prices are brought down. The rural markets would be able to afford it, says Mr. Irvine-Halliday, if they had access to microcredit. He says that in Tembisa, a shanty town in Johannesburg, he found that almost 10,000 homes spent more than $60 each on candles and paraffin every year. As calculations revealed, these families can afford to purchase a solid state lighting system in just over a year of paying per week what they would normally spend on candles and paraffin - if they have access to microcredit. LUTW is in the process of creating such a microcredit facility for South Africa.
In villages near Khadakwadi, the newly installed LED lamps are a subject of envy, even for those connected to the grid. Those connected to the grid have to face power cuts up to 6 or 7 hours a day. Constant energy shortages and blackouts are a common problem due to a lack of power plants, transmission, and distribution losses caused by old technology and illegal stealing of electricity from the grid. LED systems require far less maintenance, a longer life, and as villagers jokingly say, "no electricity bills". The lamps provided by GSBF have enough power to provide just four hours of light a day. However, that is enough for people to get their work done in the early hours of the night, and is more reliable than light generated off India's electrical grid. Villagers are educated by GSBF officials to make the most of the new lamps. An official from GSBF instructs Jadhav and his family to clean the lamp regularly. "Its luminosity and life will diminish if you let the dust settle on it," he warns them.
For each question, only ONE of the choices is correct.
27. The GSBF lamps...
- provide light for 100,000 Indian villages.
- are very expensive to install.
- are powered by the sun.
28. More than half of India's population uses...
- kerosene as a cooking fuel.
- biomass as a cooking fuel.
- solar power as a cooking fuel.
29. In India, the GSBF lamps are too expensive for most people...
- in rural areas.
- in urban areas.
- in all areas.
30. The GSBF lamps...
- are not as reliable as electricity from the national power grid.
- require skill to use.
- only provide four hours of light a day.
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each gap.
31. Another example of cheap technology helping poor people is (31) __________.
32. Kerosene lamps and conventional bulbs give off less (32) __________ than GSBF lamps.
33. The Indian government will struggle to connect villages to electricity because many are (33) __________.
34. GSBF lamps would be cheaper if it weren't for (34) __________.
35. Users need to wipe (35) __________ from the LED to keep it working well.
Question 31: ...helping poor people is _____
- LED lighting
- cell phones
- solar energy
Question 32: ...give off less _____
- useful light
- heat
- smoke
Question 33: ...many villages are _____
- too poor
- not interested
- remote
Question 34: ...if it weren't for _____
- high costs
- heavy import duties
- local manufacturing
Question 35: Users need to wipe _____
- water
- dust
- oil
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
36. Ganpat Jadhav's monthly ration of kerosene was insufficient.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
37. Kerosene causes many fires in homes in developing countries.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
38. LED systems could solve the world's energy problems.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
39. Chaddha has so far funded the GSBF lamp project himself.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
40. Microcredit would help to get more people to use LED lamps.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 3.0 - 4.5: Cần luyện tập thêm. Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố kỹ năng đọc lướt (skimming) để nắm ý chính và đọc quét (scanning) để tìm thông tin chi tiết.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
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Kết quả: [[score]]/40
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Reading Passage 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 - 13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
Secret of Thailand's Success?
A. It is a question officials here in Asia are being posed more and more: Why are your economies so vibrant? Answers include young and swelling populations, decreased debt, growing cities, emerging middle-class consumer sectors, evolving markets and, of course, China's rise. Add this to that list: Women and their increasing role in Asia's economies. The idea is that the more opportunities women have, the more vibrant economies are and, consequently, the less need there is to amass a huge public debt to boost growth. It is an idea bolstered by a new survey by MasterCard International Inc., which compares the socio-economic level of women with men in Asia-Pacific nations. The gauge uses four key indicators: participation in the labour force, college education, managerial positions, and above-median income.
B. Which Asian nation is doing host when it comes to women's advancement? Thailand. It scored 92.3 of a possible 100, and according to MasterCard's index, 100 equals gender equality. The survey was based on interviews with 300 to 350 women in thirteen nations and national statistics. Malaysia came in second with a score of 86.2, while China came in third with 68.4. The average score in Asia was 67.7. At the bottom of the list is South Korea (45.5), followed by Indonesia (52.5), and Japan (54.5). Perhaps it is a bizarre coincidence, yet MasterCard's findings fit quite neatly with two important issues in Asia: economic leadership and debt. Thailand, Malaysia, and China are three economies widely seen as the future of Asia. Thailand's economic boom in recent years has prompted many leaders in the region to look at its growth strategy. Malaysia, which has a female central bank governor, is one of Asia's rising economic powers. China, of course, is the world's hottest economy, and one that is shaking up trade patterns and business decisions everywhere.
C. Something all three economies have in common is an above-average level of female participation. What the three worst ranked economies share are severe long-term economic challenges of high levels of debt and a female workforce that is being neglected. Research in economic history is very conclusive on the role of women in economic growth and development, says Yuwa Hedrick-Wong, an economic adviser to MasterCard. The more extensive women's participation at all areas of economic activities, the higher the probability for stronger economic growth. That, Hedrick-Wong says, means societies and economies that consistently fail to fully incorporate women's ability and talent in businesses, and the workplace will suffer the consequences. Take Korea, which has been walking in place economically in recent years. Immediately following the 1997— 1998 Asian financial crisis, Korea became a regional role model as growth boomed and unemployment fell. Yet a massive increase in household debt left consumers overexposed and growth slowed.
D. Maybe it is a just coincidence that Korea also ranks low on measures of gender equality published by the United Nations. As of 2003, for example, it ranked below Honduras, Paraguay, Mauritius, and Ukraine in terms of women's economic and political empowerment. Utilising more of its female workforce would deepen Korea's labour pool and increase potential growth rates in the economy. The same goes for Japan. The reluctance of Asia's biggest economy to increase female participation and let more women into the executive suite exacerbates its biggest long-term challenge: a declining birth rate. In 2003, the number of children per Japanese woman fell to a record low of 1.29 versus about 2 in the early 1970s. Preliminary government statistics suggest the rate declined further in 2004. The trend is nothing short of a crisis for a highly indebted nation of 126 million that has yet to figure out how to fund the national pension system down the road. Yet Japan has been slow to realise that for many women, the decision to delay childbirth is a form of rebellion against societal expectations to have children and become housewives.
E. It may be 2005, yet having children is a career-ending decision for millions of bright, ambitious, and well-educated Japanese. Until corrected, Japan's birth rate will drop and economic growth will lag. UN Secretary General Kofi Annan was absolutely right earlier this month when he said no other policy is as likely to raise economic productivity than the empowerment of women. Here, in Thailand, the government is getting some decent marks in this regard, and the economy's 6 per cent-plus growth rate may be a direct result. Thailand still has a long way to go. Yet the Bank of Thailand's deputy governor, Tarisa Watanagase, is a woman, as are seven of nine assistant governors. Then there's Jada Wattanasiritham, who runs Siam Commercial Bank Plc, Thailand's fourth-biggest lender. How many female chief executives can you name in Japan or Korea? Looked at broadly in Asia, MasterCard's survey is on to something. It is that giving women more opportunities to contribute to an economy is not just about fairness, but dollars and sense, too.
The text has 5 paragraphs (A - E).
Which paragraph contains each of the following pieces of information?
(1) __________ The fact that a woman runs one of Thailand's biggest banks
(2) __________ The number of countries included in the survey
(3) __________ The fact that Japan's birth rate is falling quickly
(4) __________ The criteria used to get a score for each country
Question 1: The fact that a woman runs one of Thailand's biggest banks
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Question 2: The number of countries included in the survey
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Question 3: The fact that Japan's birth rate is falling quickly
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Question 4: The criteria used to get a score for each country
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each gap.
5. Higher consumption in the (5) __________ sector of the market is one reason that Asia's economies are doing well.
6. The scores were decided through a combination of interviews and (6) __________.
7. Higher (7) __________ has created an economic problem for Korea.
8. Japanese politicians have not yet decided how to get money for the (8) __________.
Question 5: Higher consumption in the _____ sector
- middle-class
- consumer
- emerging
Question 6: ...interviews and _____
- surveys
- national statistics
- an index
Question 7: Higher _____ has created a problem
- household debt
- unemployment
- public debt
Question 8: ...money for the _____
- declining birth rate
- highly indebted nation
- national pension system
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
9. Other countries are looking at the example of Thailand to see if its policies can help their economies.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
10. Higher female participation in an economy always leads to greater economic growth.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
11. Female participation in the economy is lower in Japan than in most other developed economies.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
12. Most of the Bank of Thailand's assistant governors are female.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
13. The writer considers 'fairness' to be a bad reason for giving women top jobs.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
Reading Passage 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 - 26, which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.
Patients Are a Virtue
A. Despite conference jeers, job cuts, and a financial crisis, health secretary Patricia Hewitt may find a reason to smile this week, as the NHS (British National Health Service) was named one of the top places to work by students. Among engineering, science, and IT students, the health service was ranked second in this year's Univer-sum UK graduate survey of ideal employers, a leap of 54 places from last year. The annual survey, conducted in the UK since 1997, canvassed the opinions of more than 7, 700 final and penultimate-year students studying for degrees in business, engineering, science. IT, and the humanities, at 39 universities, between January and March this year.
B. Each student was presented with a list of 130 employers, nominated by students through a separate process, from which they selected the five they considered to be ideal employers. The Universum list is based on the frequency of an organisation being selected as an ideal employer, following a weighting process. This year, government departments and public sector organisations dominated the top spots, with the BBC ranked first among humanities, engineering, science, and IT students, retaining its place from last year, and coining third for those studying business. Among humanities students, the BBC was followed closely by the Foreign and Commonwealth Office and the Civil Service fast stream. The Cabinet Office and the Ministry of Defence were not far behind, ranked fifth and sixth respectively. As well as the NHS, engineering, science, and IT students favoured the Environment Agency, which leapt 83 places, from 86 in 2005 to number three this year. Meanwhile, business students voted accountancy giants PricewaterhouseCoopers (PwC) as their favoured employer, followed by HSBC.
C. At a London awards ceremony sponsored by the Guardian, Foluke Ajayi, head of NHS careers at NHS employers, said its success this year reflected the reality of the health service, which is the third largest employer in the world and the largest in Europe. "We employ people in other clinical areas, such as health care. We employ IT managers, engineers, architects," she said, adding that the health service is no longer seen as a "second choice" career. "People recognise that they can give something back to the community, but still develop a worthwhile career."
D. Sarah Churchman, director of student recruitment and diversity at PwC, said her company's success is down to a good campus presence, its commitment to invest in its employees and, with offices around the world, the chance to travel, something which just under half of the students polled said was an important factor when it came to looking for work. One of the big four accountancy firms, PwC is not into gimmicks, and it does not offer freebies but, said Churchman, it does offer "a solid foundation" for anyone wanting a career in business. "We sell our people skills, so we are interested in building skills. We're not selling something, we invest in our people," she added.
E. Further down the rankings, but still with reason to celebrate, was John Lewis, which matched bumper sales this year with a leap from 111th place in 2005 to 26th among this year's humanities students. Sky found itself in 12th place, up from 104th last year, and the Environment Agency also proved popular among this student group, rising from 138th in 2005 to 7th this year. Among the business fraternity, shell saw a reversal of fortunes, rising to 30th place after last year's 70th position. There were a few dramatic drops in the rankings. The Bank of England fell from 14th in 2005 to 27th this year among humanities students, although it retained its mid-table position among those studying business. British Airways also saw a slight dip, as did McKinsey & Co, which dropped from 11th to 22nd among business undergraduates.
F. Perhaps more surprisingly, this year was the first appearance in the rankings of Teach First, a small charity launched three years ago that aims to create the "leaders of the future " by encouraging top graduates who would not normally consider a career in teaching to commit to work in "challenging" secondary schools for at least two years. The organisation came straight in at number eight among humanities students and was voted 22nd by those studying engineering, science, and IT. James Darley, director of graduate recruitment at Teach First, said he was "bowled over" by the news. "We were not expecting this. We're a registered charity, only able to physically go to 15 universities."
G. The scheme, based on one run in the US, has the backing of more than 80 businesses, including Deloitte and HSBC. During their two years, candidates undertake leadership training and emerge from the programme with a range of skills and experiences. "We hope in the long term they will be our ambassadors, as we call them, in politics, industry, charities, who will have done it and continue to support the educationally disadvantaged," adds Darley. This year, 260 graduates are expected to take up the Teach first challenge in schools in London and Manchester, More are expected over the coining years, as the scheme expands to Birmingham and three other cities by 2008. Of the first set of recruits to complete the programme, half have gone on to work for "some amazing companies", while the other half have chosen to stay on in their schools for a further year - 20% in leadership roles.
H. While more than half of students were concerned about achieving a good work life balance, a third said they wanted a job that would challenge them. Although male Students tended to focus more on the practical aspects of work, such as "building a sound financial base", women, particularly those studying for humanities degrees, had a more idealistic outlook, saying making a contribution to society was a key career goal. Almost half of all students said that paid overtime was a key part of any company compensation package. However, business students said that the most important compensation, apart from salary, was performance-related bonuses, while important considerations for humanities students were retirement plans. Working overseas also scored highly among those surveyed this year, with 45% of business students, and 44% of humanities students, listing it as a priority. Ethical considerations and corporate social responsibilities were also mentioned, with a large percentage of humanities and engineering, science and IT students saying it was a key consideration when it came to choosing an employer.
The text has 8 paragraphs (A - H).
Which paragraph does each of the following headings best fit?
(14) __________ Most popular employers for different students
(15) __________ Students' expectations
(16) __________ Give and develop with the NHS
(17) __________ Reason for the NHS to be happy
Question 14: Most popular employers for different students
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
- H
Question 15: Students' expectations
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
- H
Question 16: Give and develop with the NHS
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
- H
Question 17: Reason for the NHS to be happy
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
- H
According to the text, FIVE of the following statements are true. Choose the first true statement.
Question 18:
- In the survey, students could only rate employers on a given list.
- The Environment Agency rose the most places in this year's survey.
- The NHS offers a variety of careers outside health care.
- British Airways fell in popularity amongst business students.
- James Darley was surprised by his organisation's performance in the survey.
- Most Teach First teachers continue in a teaching career after two years.
- Most students want to achieve a good work/life balance.
Question 19: Choose the second true statement.
- In the survey, students could only rate employers on a given list.
- The Environment Agency rose the most places in this year's survey.
- The NHS offers a variety of careers outside health care.
- British Airways fell in popularity amongst business students.
- James Darley was surprised by his organisation's performance in the survey.
- Most Teach First teachers continue in a teaching career after two years.
- Most students want to achieve a good work/life balance.
Question 20: Choose the third true statement.
- In the survey, students could only rate employers on a given list.
- The Environment Agency rose the most places in this year's survey.
- The NHS offers a variety of careers outside health care.
- British Airways fell in popularity amongst business students.
- James Darley was surprised by his organisation's performance in the survey.
- Most Teach First teachers continue in a teaching career after two years.
- Most students want to achieve a good work/life balance.
Question 21: Choose the fourth true statement.
- In the survey, students could only rate employers on a given list.
- The Environment Agency rose the most places in this year's survey.
- The NHS offers a variety of careers outside health care.
- British Airways fell in popularity amongst business students.
- James Darley was surprised by his organisation's performance in the survey.
- Most Teach First teachers continue in a teaching career after two years.
- Most students want to achieve a good work/life balance.
Question 22: Choose the fifth true statement.
- In the survey, students could only rate employers on a given list.
- The Environment Agency rose the most places in this year's survey.
- The NHS offers a variety of careers outside health care.
- British Airways fell in popularity amongst business students.
- James Darley was surprised by his organisation's performance in the survey.
- Most Teach First teachers continue in a teaching career after two years.
- Most students want to achieve a good work/life balance.
Choose the correct answer.
23. The survey covered students...
- from all British universities.
- studying a variety of subjects.
- who were in their last year of studies only.
24. The BBC...
- was first choice in most categories.
- was unpopular with business students.
- employs more graduates than most other organisations.
25. Sarah Churchman says PwC did well because it... (Choose first reason)
- often goes to universities to meet students.
- provides many scholarships for students.
- offers many opportunities to travel.
26. Sarah Churchman says PwC did well because it... (Choose second reason)
- often goes to universities to meet students.
- provides many scholarships for students.
- offers many opportunities to travel.
Reading Passage 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27 - 40, which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.
Rise of the Robots
If you are into technology, you are living in wonderful times. Things are developing in leaps and bounds, especially gadgets. Let us look at the technology that is set to break through.
CELESTRON SKYSCOUT
Backyard stargazing goes seriously hi-tech with the Celestron SkyScout, which was judged to be the Best of Innovations at the New York Consumer Electronics Show press preview event in November. It is not difficult to see why. The SkyScout is a hand-held viewing device that is capable of finding and identifying more than 6,000 celestial objects visible to the naked eye, thus transforming the night sky into your own personal planetarium. Using GPS technology and a substantial celestial database, the camcorder-sized SkyScout enables stargazers to point the device at any visible object in the sky, press a button, and then listen to a commentary. For the truly celestially challenged, if you want to view a star or planet but do not have a clue which bit of the heavens to look in, do not despair: the SkyScout's "locate" feature will guide you to it using illuminated arrows in the viewfinder.
NOKIA N91
This amazing mobile jukebox is due out early in 2006. Nokia's N91 looks set to be in a class of its own as a multimedia mobile phone. It will play music, take photos, surf the web and download videos, store contact details, and generally organise your life. The robust little phone, resplendent in its stainless steel case, is the first Nokia to be equipped with a hard drive (4Gb), which means that it can store up to 3,000 songs. The N91, which has a hi-fi quality headset and remote control, supports a wide range of digital music formats, including MP3, Real, WAV, and WMAA. It uses wireless technology to allow users to find and buy music from the operator's music store. You can also drag and drop music from your PC to the N91 and manage and share playlists. If you can find the time, you can get on the blower, too.
SEIKO SPECTRUM E-PAPER WATCH
The Seiko Spectrum is no ordinary wristwatch. At first glance, it is an attractive and futuristic bracelet-style watch. Look closer, however, and you will notice that its display is unlike any you have seen before. Rather than the usual LCD screen, the display is made of "e-paper" - from the electronic paper pioneers E Ink Corp - and shows a constantly changing mosaic pattern along with the time. Because e-paper is so flexible and thin, it allows the display to curve round the wrist along with the watch band - something conventional liquid-crystal displays cannot do, as they have to be flat. Seiko says the e-paper display not only produces far better contrast than an LCD screen, but requires no power to retain an image, so the batteries last longer. Seiko is releasing only 500 of the watches next month, priced at about £1,250 - so you'd better lose no time.
HIGH-DEFINITION TV
HDTV, already available in the United States, Japan, and Australia, will hit the UK in 2006. When you watch a programme filmed in the HD format, you will see a much sharper, clearer and more vibrant image. This is due partly to the way a programme is filmed, but also to the high-definition TV set itself, which uses either 720 or 1,080 visible rows of pixels (depending on which format the individual HDTV uses) to display images, compared to the 576 rows of pixels used in current sets.
ELECTROLUX TRILOBITE 2.0 ROBOT VACUUM CLEANER
Next time you are expecting visitors, do not bother to vacuum first - wait until they arrive, and then entertain them with this little gadget. The Electrolux Trilobite 2.0 is a robotic vacuum cleaner that navigates its way around your floors using ultrasound, just like a bat. It pings out ultrasound vibrations at surfaces to create a map of the room, which it remembers for future cleaning assignments. The Trilobite has no problem avoiding collision with things placed on the floor. Special magnetic strips are placed in doorways, near stairs and other openings. These act as a wall, keeping the Trilobite in the room. You can also programme it to glide round when you're at work or after you've gone to bed. When Electrolux introduced the original Trilobite in 2001, it was voted among the 100 most innovative designs (though whether the judges were dedicated couch potatoes, and thus biased, we were not able to discover). The name comes from the hard-shelled sea creature from the Paleozoic era (between 250 million and 560 million years ago) that roamed the ocean floor feeding on particles and small animals.
HONDA ASIMO ROBOT
Need an extra pair of hands around the office? Look no further: this month, the Honda Motor Company showcased its second-generation humanoid robot, Asimo. The machine has come a long way since its first incarnation five years ago. The 1.3 metre-tall droid is now capable of performing a variety of office tasks, including reception duties, serving drinks and acting as an information guide, as well as making deliveries. Using multiple sensors, Asimo has the ability to recognise the surrounding environment and interact with people using integrated circuit tags. It can walk and run at a fair pace, and push a cart. Honda plans to start using Asimo's receptionist functions at its Wako Building in Japan early in 2006, and it is hoped it will become available for leasing afterwards. It could soon be pushing a cart at an office near you.
Choose the correct answer.
27. The Celestron SkyScout can...
- tell you information about the stars.
- tell you where in the world you are.
- find objects in the sky that are not normally visible.
28. The Seiko Spectrum e-paper watch...
- cannot be bent.
- can be used for surfing the Internet.
- is being produced as a limited edition.
29. The Electrolux Trilobite 2.0 robot vacuum cleaner...
- asks permission before moving from room to room.
- uses lasers to help it avoid objects.
- is programmable.
30. The Honda Asimo robot...
- has two pairs of hands.
- uses lasers to help it recognise its surroundings.
- can run.
Complete the sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text.
31. The SkyScout uses GPS and (31) __________ to help you find a star.
32. The Seiko Spectrum does not need batteries to power the (32) __________.
33. HDTV uses more (33) __________ than conventional TV.
34. The Trilobite 2.0 could be used to (34) __________ guests.
35. Asimo first appeared (35) __________.
Question 31: ...uses GPS and _____
- a database
- illuminated arrows
- a viewfinder
Question 32: ...power the _____
- e-paper display
- watch band
- LCD screen
Question 33: ...uses more _____
- pixels
- rows of pixels
- HD format
Question 34: ...used to _____ guests
- vacuum
- entertain
- navigate
Question 35: ...first appeared _____
- in 2006
- five years ago
- this month
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
36. The Nokia N91 is strong.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
37. E-paper can be torn easily.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
38. HDTV is filmed differently to conventional TV.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
39. The Trilobite 2.0 looks just like the original design.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
40. Asimo is available for export.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 3.0 - 4.5: Cần luyện tập thêm. Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố kỹ năng đọc lướt (skimming) để nắm ý chính và đọc quét (scanning) để tìm thông tin chi tiết.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 5.0 - 6.5: Khá tốt! Bạn có khả năng đọc hiểu tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc phân tích các dạng câu hỏi phức tạp và quản lý thời gian hiệu quả hơn giữa các đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 7.0+: Xuất sắc! Chúc mừng! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích thông tin rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
Reading Passage 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on this passage.
Sleeping on the job
North Americans are not a people of the siesta. There is a tendency to associate afternoon naps with laziness and non-productivity. Latin Americans and some in European cultures take a different view. In Mexico and Greece, for example, it is customary in close businesses between noon and about 4:00 pm - siesta time. Recent studies are showing that if you can take a 15 to 30-minute nap while at work in the afternoon, you'll be more alert, more energetic, happier doing what you do, more productive and therefore more likely to get ahead. Napping on the job is not yet a trend but there is serious talk in academic circles about the merits of 'power napping'.
By some estimate, the average American collects an annual 'sleep debt' of S00 hours - subtracting from an assumed norm of eight hours a night. Two out of three Americans get less than eight hours of sleep a night during the work week, according to a recent study by the National Sleep Foundation in Washington. Forty percent say they're so tired that it interferes with their daily activities. Sleep researcher William Anthony, a professor of psychology at Boston University, says fatigue is a significant problem in modern society, he says sleepiness is a leading cause of auto accidents, second only to drunkness. All that drowsiness costs an estimated 818 billion annually in lost productivity. 'We have a simple message,' says Professor Anthony, 'People should be allowed to nap at their breaks. The rationale is a productivity one - workers are sleepy, and when they're sleepy on the job they're not productive.'
Some companies are encouraging sleep at work, primarily for safety. The Metropolitan Transit Authority, which runs the New York subway system and two suburban railroads, is considering power naps for its train operators and bus drivers. Another railway has started letting its train operators take nap breaks of up to 45 minutes but only when trains are stopped at designated spots off the main lines and dispatchers have been notified. Some overseas air carriers permit airline pilots, when not on duty, to nap in the cockpit. Airlines in the United States have not accepted this practice yet.
According to the Encyclopedia of Sleep and Dreaming: 'There is a biologically-based tendency to fall asleep in mid-afternoon just as there is a tendency to fall asleep at night. Moreover if sleep the night before is reduced or disturbed for any reason, a nap the subsequent afternoon is not only more likely to occur, but it can also relieve sleepiness and increase alertness.' The nap zone, documented in numerous studies, is typically between noon and 3.00 pm. Some people power through this natural slowdown with caffeine or sugar but if employers allowed naps, the benefits would be improvements in mood and performance, especially in mid-afternoon. Workers would concentrate better and persevere in tasks longer. Workers commonly sneak naps even without permission but some companies have begun encouraging naps as part of their policies on boosting production. One US distributor, is opening a 2,000-square-foot nap facility that provides beds for up to 20 of its 225 workers at a time. A company in Japan sets up tents in business offices provides eyeshades and ear plugs and encourages employees to snooze in the middle of the work day. According to Professor Anthony, 'You're not going to see napping at traditional types of operations ... but in 21st century-style operations, this isn't going to be a perk. It's going to have more to do with productivity. Smart employers are understanding that their employees need rest to do their best.'
Some suspect that corporate naptime, like other perks, is just a way to keep people at the office longer. On the other hand, growing flexibility in hours, for some workers, is allowing nap times to become more common. With eleven million Americans telecommuting and another forty million withking out of their bonus full- or part-time, office hours are basically as long as you can stay awake. One thing is sure: longer commutes, more intense, stressful workday and higher production demands are taking a toll. So, with Americans sleeping, less and working, longer hours, some employers are warming up to the idea that a little nap in the middle of the day can be good for business.
Question 1
According to the passage, which of the following statements is supported by recent research?
- Napping is an indicator of laziness.
- Two thirds of Americans sleep too much.
- Napping in the workplace is a current trend.
- Short naps at work increase productivity.
Questions 2-6
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer?
Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
2. The number one cause of car accidents is fatigue.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
3. People who nap in the afternoon are lazy.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
4. A nap in the middle of the day can improve your mood.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
5. People who nap regularly live longer.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
6. The majority of Americans sleep at least eight hours a night.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
Questions 7-9
Choose one phrase from the list (A-F) to complete each sentence.
A. drink coffee to stay awake during the afternoon
B. have a nap during breaks
C. fall asleep when they are bored
D. sneak naps without permission
E. resist the trend toward napping
F. fall asleep in the afternoon
7. Humans are biologically programmed to...
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
8. Employees of some progressive companies are encouraged to...
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
9. Traditional employers are likely to...
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
Questions 10-11
Complete the sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
10. In the transportation industry, napping is a matter of _____.
- safety
- productivity
- convenience
11. On some airlines, pilots can sleep in the cockpit if _____.
- on a break
- not on duty
- off the main lines
Question 12
According to the writer, in America the workplace is becoming...
- less flexible.
- more exciting.
- less demanding.
- more stressful.
Question 13
According to the writer, what is the main reason why employers support the idea of naps at work?
- for health reasons
- to promote safety
- to increase productivity
- to encourage creativity
Reading Passage 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on this passage.
Homeopathy
A. Homeopathy is an alternative system of medicine, founded in the early 19th century by a German physician, Dr. Samuel Hahnemann. Since 1880, homeopathy has experienced a strong resurgence of interest in North and South America as well as in Europe. Surveys indicate that more than a third of French physicians have prescribed homeopathic remedies and almost 50 percent of British physicians have referred patients for homeopathic treatment.
B. Hahnemann's discovery of the principle of homeopathy was accidental. After taking some quinine, he noticed that he developed malaria-like symptoms. Since malaria patients were treated with quinine, he speculated that possibly malaria is cured by quinine because it causes malaria-like symptoms in healthy people. He decided to explore his theory by testing other substances used as medicine at the time, such as arsenic and belladonna. His tests were conducted by either taking the substances internally himself or by administering them to healthy volunteers and then recording all of the symptoms the volunteers experienced. He continued his experiments on a wide range of natural substances, often toxic. These recorded results created 'drug pictures' which formed the basis for the new system of medicine. The next step was to give the tested substances to patients suffering from the same group of symptoms represented by the drug picture recorded. The results were incredible. People were being cured from diseases that had never been cured before. He condensed his theory into a single Latin phrase: similia similibus curentur (let likes be cured by likes). This means that a disease can be cured by a medicine which produces in a healthy person, symptoms similar to those experienced by the patient.
C. The process of making remedies is very precise. A homeopathic remedy is normally a single substance. The substances may be made from plants, minerals and even animals, for example snake venom and cuttlefish ink. To make remedies, the raw material is dissolved in a mixture that contains approximately 90% alcohol and 10% water. The mixture is left to stand for 2 to 4 weeks, shaken occasionally then strained. The resulting liquid or tincture is then diluted according to very specific measures to a factor of 1:100. For example, to produce a remedy called 1c potency or strength, one drop of the tincture is added to 99 drops of alcohol/water mixture. To produce a 2c potency, one drop of the 1c mixture is added to 99 drops of alcohol/water mixture. Between each mixture the remedy is shaken vigorously, Hahnemann believed that through this process, the energy of the substance was released. Once the remedy has been diluted beyond a 12c potency, it is unlikely that even a molecule of the original substance remains. Yet, ironically, the more dilute the remedy, the stronger it is. This makes no sense in light of present-day science but regardless of what science tells us is impossible, in practice, the higher the dilution the stronger and more lasting the effect.
D. It is this use of high dilutions that has given rise to controversy. Many conventional doctors claim that homeopathy functions only as a placebo because the dosage is so small. However, the clinical experience of homeopathy shows that this tiny dose can be effective; it works on unconscious people and infants, and it even works on animals. Controlled clinical studies performed by medical researchers are demonstrating that homeopathy can be an effective method of treatment for many diseases.
E. The most important part of homeopathic treatment lies in the lengthy interview which the homeopath conducts with the patient. The idea behind this one to two hour consultation is to build up a psychological, emotional and physical history of the patient, to discover the underlying patterns of disease. The homeopath then decides which medicine to prescribe based on the closest match between the patient's symptoms and the known symptoms elicited by the medicine in a healthy body. A single dose is given for the shortest period of time necessary to stimulate the body's healing power.
F. How does the concept of homeopathy differ from that of conventional medicine? Very simply, homeopathy attempts to stimulate the body to recover itself. In-stead of looking upon the symptoms as something wrong which must be set right, the homeopath sees them as signs of the way the body is attempting to help itself. Another basic difference between conventional medical therapy and homeopathy is in the role of medication. In much of conventional therapy the illness is controlled through regular use of medical substances. If the medication is withdrawn, the person returns to illness. For example, a person who takes a pill for high blood pressure every day is not undergoing a cure but is only controlling the symptoms. Homeopathy s aim is the cure: 'the complete restoration of perfect health,' as Dr. Hahnemann said.
G. Homeopathy has made significant progress in treating diseases which orthodox medicine finds difficult. Best at dealing with inflammatory conditions such as arthritis, skin conditions, migraines and respiratory problems linked to allergies, it has also proved highly successful at treating asthma. But homeopathy is not an appropriate treatment for degenerative diseases such as emphysema. It cannot treat diseases which destroy tissue, although it can still be beneficial if used in combination with other treatments. Two of the main advantages of homeopathy are the low cost of the medications and the rarity of adverse reactions. The medicines are inexpensive, safe, and easy to use, so people can learn to handle many of the common illnesses for which they currently seek medical help. The resulting savings in costs and the increase in personal independence represent a significant contribution to health care
Questions 14-19
Choose the most suitable headings for sections B-G from the list below.
List of Headings
i. The future of homeopathy
ii. Concerns about homeopathy
iii. Comparison with traditional western medicine
iv. Dr. S. Hahnemann
v. Theoretical and experimental basis
vi. Revival of homeopathy
vii. Preparation of medicines
viii. Debate over effectiveness
ix. Advantages and limitations of homeopathy
x. Aspects of treatment
14. Section B
- i
- ii
- iii
- iv
- v
- vi
- vii
- viii
- ix
- x
15. Section C
- i
- ii
- iii
- iv
- v
- vi
- vii
- viii
- ix
- x
16. Section D
- i
- ii
- iii
- iv
- v
- vi
- vii
- viii
- ix
- x
17. Section E
- i
- ii
- iii
- iv
- v
- vi
- vii
- viii
- ix
- x
18. Section F
- i
- ii
- iii
- iv
- v
- vi
- vii
- viii
- ix
- x
19. Section G
- i
- ii
- iii
- iv
- v
- vi
- vii
- viii
- ix
- x
Questions 20-22
Complete the description. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
Making a homeopathic remedy
A single product is mixed with (20) __________ and left to stand.
The mixture is strained, then diluted.
The mixture is then (21) __________ vigorously.
As the remedy becomes more diluted, it gets (22) __________.
Question 20: ...mixed with _____
- water and alcohol
- alcohol and water
- a mixture
Question 21: ...is then _____ vigorously
- stirred
- shaken
- mixed
Question 22: ...it gets _____
- weaker
- stronger
- more potent
Questions 23-26
Complete the summary. Choose your answers from the box below.
Homeopathy differs from conventional medicine. Homeopathy sees symptoms as signs the body is attempting to (23) __________. Conventional medication (24) __________ but the illness returns if the medicine is taken away. Homeopathic remedies are (25) __________ than conventional medicine and have fewer (26) __________.
cheaper, cure, heal itself, illness, treatments, getting better, control symptoms, more expensive, side effects, stronger, healthy, patients
Question 23: ...attempting to _____
- cheaper
- cure
- heal itself
- illness
- treatments
- getting better
- control symptoms
- more expensive
- side effects
- stronger
- healthy
- patients
Question 24: Conventional medication _____
- cheaper
- cure
- heal itself
- illness
- treatments
- getting better
- control symptoms
- more expensive
- side effects
- stronger
- healthy
- patients
Question 25: Homeopathic remedies are _____
- cheaper
- cure
- heal itself
- illness
- treatments
- getting better
- control symptoms
- more expensive
- side effects
- stronger
- healthy
- patients
Question 26: ...and have fewer _____
- cheaper
- cure
- heal itself
- illness
- treatments
- getting better
- control symptoms
- more expensive
- side effects
- stronger
- healthy
- patients
Reading Passage 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are based on this passage.
The hemp revival
The hemp plant, one of the world's oldest industrial resources, is back. The rediscovery of this renewable resource is making it the fibre of choice for future textiles, personal care products, building materials, paper and fuel. Hemp has been grown for paper, textiles, food and medicine throughout human history. The earliest known woven fabric, made of hemp, dates back to the eighth millennium (8000-7000 BC). The majority of all sails, clothes, tents, rugs, towels, paper, rope, twine, art canvas, paints, varnishes and lighting oil were made from hemp. Hemp seeds were regularly used as a source of food and protein for centuries.
Hemp's drastic decline in use and importance within a matter of fifty years is widely-considered to have been brought about by the timber and petrochemical industries in America. By the mid-1930s, changes in technology were beginning to impact on the hemp industry. Mechanical stripping equipment and machines to conserve hemp's high-cellulose pulp became available and affordable. Timber and paper holding companies stood to lose billions of dollars if hemp were to be grown on a large scale. A resurgence of the hemp industry also threatened the emerging petro-chemical companies which had patented the chemicals for pulp processing. Newspaper articles began to appear, linking hemp with violent crime. The term used, however, was 'marijuana' to distance it from hemp used for industrial purposes. Because few people realised that marijuana and hemp come from the same plant species, virtually nobody suspected that the Marijuana Prohibition of 1938 would destroy the hemp industry.
Supporting the theory that marijuana was banned to destroy the hemp industry, were two articles written just before the Marijuana Prohibition, claiming that hemp was on the verge of becoming a super crop. These articles, which appeared in well-respected magazines, praised the usefulness and potential of hemp. 'Hemp can be used to produce more than 25,000 products', and 'hemp will prove, for both farmer and public, the most profitable and desirable crop that can be grown.' This was the first time that 'billion dollar' was used to describe the value of a crop. Less than one year after these articles were written, the Marijuana Prohibition took effect. To what extent a conspiracy was involved is still being debated, but the important thing is that for thousands of years, hemp was used extensively. Then over a short period, it became illegal in many parts of the world.
Now, however, the focus is on the development of hemp as an industrial resource. Initially, a distinction needs to be made between the two types of hemp. 'Cannabis' has evolved into two basic species. Plants grown for fibre and seed are universally called hemp. Cannabis grown for its drug content is commonly called marijuana or drug cannabis. Drug-type cannabis varies widely in THC content from approximately 1-2% in unselected strains to 10% in the best modern 'varieties'. (as cited from Watson 1994). Hemp contains virtually none of the active ingredients of drug-type cannabis (THC), it is not feasible to 'get high' on hemp, and most marijuana produces very low-quality fibre. Hemp should never be confused with marijuana, as their roles cannot be reversed.
It is evident that hemp is an extraordinary fibre. Both stems and seeds can be utilised. Most significantly, hemp can be grown without pesticides and herbicides. The plant also has the ability to suppress weeds and soil-borne diseases. Based on the hemp industries which have been established overseas, there is a large demand for hemp products and hemp is proving to be a highly profitable industry. On an annual basis, one acre of hemp will produce as much fibre as 2 to 3 acres of cotton. The fibre is stronger and softer than cotton, lasts twice as long and will not mildew. Cotton grows only in warm climates and requires more water and more fertiliser than hemp as well as large quantities of pesticide and herbicide.
Hemp can also be used to produce fibreboard that is stronger and lighter than wood, and is fire retardant. Unlike paper from wood pulp, hemp paper contains no dioxin, or other toxic residue, and a single acre of hemp can produce the same amount of paper as four acres of trees. The tree take 20 years to harvest and hemp takes a single season. In warm climates hemp can be harvested two or even three times a year. On an annual basis, one acre of hemp will produce as much paper as 2 to 4 acres of trees. From tissue paper to cardboard, all types of paper products can be produced from hemp. The quality of hemp paper is superior to tree-based paper. Hemp paper will last hundreds of years without degrading and it can be recycled many more times than tree-based paper.
Today, industrialised nations around the world are waking up to the enormous potential of hemp. While some countries, like China and India, have never had laws against hemp cultivation, others are legalising industrial hemp after many years of lumping together with marijuana. The products and fabrics that are emerging from the international hemp industry are finding strong demand in an eco-aware global community. Hemp is indeed an agricultural crop for the twenty-first century
Questions 27-31
Re-order the following letters (A-F) to show the sequence of events. The first one (C) has been done for you.
A. Timber and petro-chemical industries threatened
B. Articles praise hemp as a potential billion dollar crop
C. Widespread cultivation of hemp
D. Prohibition of marijuana
E. Newspaper articles link hemp to violent crime
F. Development of stripping machines
Sequence: C → (27) → (28) → (29) → (30) → (31)
Question 27: First event after C
- A
- B
- D
- E
- F
Question 28: Second event after C
- A
- B
- D
- E
- F
Question 29: Third event after C
- A
- B
- D
- E
- F
Question 30: Fourth event after C
- A
- B
- D
- E
- F
Question 31: Final event
- A
- B
- D
- E
- F
Questions 32-33
Complete the following using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
| Hemp | Marijuana | |
|---|---|---|
| Fibre | strong and durable | (32) __________ |
| Drug Content | (33) __________ | up to 10% THC |
Question 32: Marijuana Fibre
- high quality
- low quality
- medium quality
Question 33: Hemp Drug Content
- high
- virtually none
- about 1-2%
Questions 34-39
Classify the following as characteristic of:
A. Hemp
B. Wood
C. Cotton
34. mildew-resistant
- Hemp
- Wood
- Cotton
35. dioxin is a by-product of processing
- Hemp
- Wood
- Cotton
36. can be harvested more than once a year
- Hemp
- Wood
- Cotton
37. large amounts of fertiliser needed
- Hemp
- Wood
- Cotton
38. fire-retardant properties
- Hemp
- Wood
- Cotton
39. requires mild temperature
- Hemp
- Wood
- Cotton
Question 40
The main purpose of this article is...
- to criticise government policy on hemp.
- to show the economic benefits of hemp.
- to compare hemp and marijuana.
- to promote research into new uses of hemp.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 3.0 - 4.5: Cần luyện tập thêm. Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố kỹ năng đọc lướt (skimming) để nắm ý chính và đọc quét (scanning) để tìm thông tin chi tiết.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 5.0 - 6.5: Khá tốt! Bạn có khả năng đọc hiểu tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc phân tích các dạng câu hỏi phức tạp và quản lý thời gian hiệu quả hơn giữa các đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 7.0+: Xuất sắc! Chúc mừng! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích thông tin rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
Reading Passage 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on this passage.
Sleeping on the job
North Americans are not a people of the siesta. There is a tendency to associate afternoon naps with laziness and non-productivity. Latin Americans and some in European cultures take a different view. In Mexico and Greece, for example, it is customary in close businesses between noon and about 4:00 pm - siesta time. Recent studies are showing that if you can take a 15 to 30-minute nap while at work in the afternoon, you'll be more alert, more energetic, happier doing what you do, more productive and therefore more likely to get ahead. Napping on the job is not yet a trend but there is serious talk in academic circles about the merits of 'power napping'.
By some estimate, the average American collects an annual 'sleep debt' of S00 hours - subtracting from an assumed norm of eight hours a night. Two out of three Americans get less than eight hours of sleep a night during the work week, according to a recent study by the National Sleep Foundation in Washington. Forty percent say they're so tired that it interferes with their daily activities. Sleep researcher William Anthony, a professor of psychology at Boston University, says fatigue is a significant problem in modern society, he says sleepiness is a leading cause of auto accidents, second only to drunkness. All that drowsiness costs an estimated 818 billion annually in lost productivity. 'We have a simple message,' says Professor Anthony, 'People should be allowed to nap at their breaks. The rationale is a productivity one - workers are sleepy, and when they're sleepy on the job they're not productive.'
Some companies are encouraging sleep at work, primarily for safety. The Metropolitan Transit Authority, which runs the New York subway system and two suburban railroads, is considering power naps for its train operators and bus drivers. Another railway has started letting its train operators take nap breaks of up to 45 minutes but only when trains are stopped at designated spots off the main lines and dispatchers have been notified. Some overseas air carriers permit airline pilots, when not on duty, to nap in the cockpit. Airlines in the United States have not accepted this practice yet.
According to the Encyclopedia of Sleep and Dreaming: 'There is a biologically-based tendency to fall asleep in mid-afternoon just as there is a tendency to fall asleep at night. Moreover if sleep the night before is reduced or disturbed for any reason, a nap the subsequent afternoon is not only more likely to occur, but it can also relieve sleepiness and increase alertness.' The nap zone, documented in numerous studies, is typically between noon and 3.00 pm. Some people power through this natural slowdown with caffeine or sugar but if employers allowed naps, the benefits would be improvements in mood and performance, especially in mid-afternoon. Workers would concentrate better and persevere in tasks longer. Workers commonly sneak naps even without permission but some companies have begun encouraging naps as part of their policies on boosting production. One US distributor, is opening a 2,000-square-foot nap facility that provides beds for up to 20 of its 225 workers at a time. A company in Japan sets up tents in business offices provides eyeshades and ear plugs and encourages employees to snooze in the middle of the work day. According to Professor Anthony, 'You're not going to see napping at traditional types of operations ... but in 21st century-style operations, this isn't going to be a perk. It's going to have more to do with productivity. Smart employers are understanding that their employees need rest to do their best.'
Some suspect that corporate naptime, like other perks, is just a way to keep people at the office longer. On the other hand, growing flexibility in hours, for some workers, is allowing nap times to become more common. With eleven million Americans telecommuting and another forty million withking out of their bonus full- or part-time, office hours are basically as long as you can stay awake. One thing is sure: longer commutes, more intense, stressful workday and higher production demands are taking a toll. So, with Americans sleeping, less and working, longer hours, some employers are warming up to the idea that a little nap in the middle of the day can be good for business.
Question 1
According to the passage, which of the following statements is supported by recent research?
- Napping is an indicator of laziness.
- Two thirds of Americans sleep too much.
- Napping in the workplace is a current trend.
- Short naps at work increase productivity.
Questions 2-6
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer?
Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
2. The number one cause of car accidents is fatigue.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
3. People who nap in the afternoon are lazy.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
4. A nap in the middle of the day can improve your mood.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
5. People who nap regularly live longer.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
6. The majority of Americans sleep at least eight hours a night.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
Questions 7-9
Choose one phrase from the list (A-F) to complete each of the following sentences.
A. drink coffee to stay awake during the afternoon
B. have a nap during breaks
C. fall asleep when they are bored
D. sneak naps without permission
E. resist the trend toward napping
F. fall asleep in the afternoon
7. Humans are biologically programmed to (7) __________
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
8. Employees of some progressive companies are encouraged to (8) __________
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
9. Traditional employers are likely to (9) __________
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
Questions 10-11
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
10. In the transportation industry, napping is a matter of (10) __________.
- safety
- productivity
- convenience
11. On some airlines, pilots can sleep in the cockpit if (11) __________.
- on a break
- not on duty
- off the main lines
Question 12
According to the writer, in America the workplace is becoming...
- less flexible.
- more exciting.
- less demanding.
- more stressful.
Question 13
According to the writer, what is the main reason why employers support the idea of naps at work?
- for health reasons
- to promote safety
- to increase productivity
- to encourage creativity
Reading Passage 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-28 which are based on this passage.
Just relax ...
A. Hypnosis is an intriguing and fascinating process. A trance-like mental state is induced in one person by another, who appears to have the power to command that person to obey instructions without question. Hypnotic experiences were described by the ancient Egyptians and Greeks, whilst references to deep sleep and anaesthesia have been found in the Bible and in the Jewish Talmud. In the mid-1700s, Franz Mesmer, an Austrian physician, developed his theory of 'animal magnetism', which was the belief that the cause of disease was the 'improper distribution of invisible magnetic fluids'. Mesmer used water tubs and magnetic rods to direct these supposed fluids to his patients. In 1784, a French commission studied Mesmer's claims, and concluded that these 'cures' were only imagined by the patients. However, people continued to believe in this process of 'mesmerism' and it was soon realised that successful results could be achieved, but without the need for magnets and water.
B. The term hypnotism was first used by James Braid, a British physician who studied suggestion and hypnosis in the mid-1800s. He demonstrated that hypnosis differed from sleep, that it was a physiological response and not the result of secret powers. During this same period, James Esdaile, a Scottish doctor working in India, used hypnotism instead of anaesthetic in over 200 major surgical operations, including leg amputations. Later that century, a French neurologist, Jean Charcot, successfully experimented with hypnosis in his clinic for nervous disorders.
C. Since then, scientists have shown that the state of hypnosis is a natural human behaviour, which can affect psychological, social and/or physical experiences. The effects of hypnotism depend on the ability, willingness and motivation of the person being hypnotised. Although hypnosis has been compared to dreaming and sleepwalking, it is not actually related to sleep. It involves a more active and intense mental concentration of the person being hypnotised. Hypnotised people can talk, write, and walk about and they are usually fully aware of what is being said and done.
D. There are various techniques used to induce hypnosis. The best-known is a series of simple suggestions repeated continuously in the same tone of voice. The subject is instructed to focus their attention on an object or fixed point, while being told to relax, breathe deeply, and allow the eyelids to grow heavy and close. As the person responds, their state of attention changes, and this altered state often leads to other changes. For example, the person may experience different levels of awareness, consciousness, imagination, memory and reasoning or become more responsive to suggestions. Additional phenomena may be produced or eliminated such as blushing, sweating, paralysis, muscle tension or anaesthesia. Although these changes can occur with hypnosis, none of these experiences is unique to it. People who are very responsive to hypnosis are also more responsive to Suggestions when they are not hypnotised. This responsiveness increases during hypnotism. This explains why hypnosis takes only a few seconds for some, whilst other people cannot be easily hypnotised.
E. It is a common misunderstanding that hypnotists are able to force people to perform criminal or any other acts against their will. In fact, subjects can resist suggestions, and they retain their ability to distinguish right from wrong. This misunderstanding is often the result of public performances where subjects perform ridiculous or highly embarrassing actions at the command of the hypnotist. These people are usually instructed not to recall their behaviour after re-emerging from the hypnotic state, so it appears that they were powerless while hypnotised. The point to remember, however, is that these individuals chose to participate, and the success; of hypnotism depends on the willingness of a person to be hypnotised.
F. Interestingly, there are different levels of hypnosis achievable. Thus deep hypnosis can be induced to allow anaesthesia for surgery, childbirth or dentistry. This contrasts to a lighter state of hypnosis, which deeply relaxes the patient who will then follow simple directions. This latter state may be used to treat mental health problems, as it allows patients to feel calm while simultaneously thinking about distressing feelings or painful memories. Thus patients can learn new responses to situations or come up with solutions to problems. This can help recovery from psychological conditions such as anxiety, depression or phobias. Sometimes, after traumatic incidents, memory of the events may be blocked. For example, some soldiers develop amnesia (loss of memory) as a result of their experiences during wartime. Through hypnosis these repressed memories can be retrieved and treated. A variation of this treatment involves age regression, when the hypnotist takes the patient back to a specific age. In this way patients may remember events and feelings from that time, which may be affecting their current well-being.
G. Physicians also have made use of the ability of a hypnotised person to remain in a given position for long periods of time. In one case, doctors had to graft skin onto a patient's badly damaged foot. First, skin from the person's abdomen was grafted onto his arm; then the graft was transferred to his foot. With hypnosis, the patient held his arm tightly in position over his abdomen for three weeks, then over his foot for four weeks. Even though these positions were unusual, the patient at no time felt uncomfortable!
H. Hypnosis occasionally has been used with witnesses and victims of crime to enable people to remember important clues, such as a criminal's physical appearance or other significant details that might help to solve a crime. However, as people can. both lie and make mistakes while hypnotised, the use of hypnotism in legal situations can cause serious problems. Also hypnosis cannot make a person divulge secret information if they don't want to. This was confirmed by the Council on Scientific Affairs of the American Medical Association, which, in 1985 reported that memories refreshed through, hypnosis may include inaccurate information, false memories, and confabulation (fact and fantasy combined).
Questions 14-18
Choose the most suitable heading for sections B-F from the list of headings below.
List of Headings
i. Use of hypnotism in criminal cases
ii. The normality of hypnotised subjects' behaviour
iii. Early medical experiments with hypnotism
iv. Early association of hypnosis with psychology
v. Dangers of hypnotism
vi. How to hypnotise
vii. Hypnosis and free will
viii. Difference between mesmerism and hypnotism
ix. Therapeutic uses of hypnosis
x. Origins of hypnosis (Example)
14. Section B
- i
- ii
- iii
- iv
- v
- vi
- vii
- viii
- ix
- x
15. Section C
- i
- ii
- iii
- iv
- v
- vi
- vii
- viii
- ix
- x
16. Section D
- i
- ii
- iii
- iv
- v
- vi
- vii
- viii
- ix
- x
17. Section E
- i
- ii
- iii
- iv
- v
- vi
- vii
- viii
- ix
- x
18. Section F
- i
- ii
- iii
- iv
- v
- vi
- vii
- viii
- ix
- x
Questions 19-23
Complete the notes on the history of hypnosis using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
References to hypnotism can be found in both the Talmud and the (19) __________. Even when Mesmer's (20) __________ were not used, successful results occurred. Braid identified hypnosis as a natural (21) __________ response. Successful hypnosis requires the subject's active (22) __________. Consequently subjects can speak or move and are (23) __________ of their surroundings.
Question 19: ...and the _____
- Bible
- Koran
- ancient texts
Question 20: Mesmer's _____
- theories
- magnets and water
- magnetic fluids
Question 21: ...a natural _____ response
- human
- physiological
- psychological
Question 22: ...subject's active _____
- participation
- willingness
- mental concentration
Question 23: ...and are _____ of their surroundings
- fully aware
- unconscious
- responsive
Questions 24-28
Choose the correct letter A-D.
24. In order to induce hypnosis, the hypnotist will...
- encourage the person to relax using a repetitively even tone of voice.
- say a specific set of words in a special tone of voice.
- say any words but in a particular tone of voice.
- encourage the person to relax while focussing on a slowly moving object.
25. Hypnotised subjects can be instructed to...
- do something they have previously said is against their wishes.
- demonstrate physical strength they would normally not have.
- reveal confidential information against their will.
- do something that they would not normally be opposed to doing.
26. Past events are recalled under hypnosis...
- to entertain the hypnotist.
- to allow subjects to reassess them without distress.
- to help the subjects improve their memories.
- to make the subject feel younger.
27. After surgery, hypnosis may be used...
- to make drugs unnecessary.
- to keep the patient mobile.
- to make the patient forget to move.
- to minimise patient's discomfort while immobile.
28. The American Medical Association reported that...
- people lie when giving evidence under hypnosis.
- people should be hypnotised before giving evidence.
- evidence given when hypnotised may be unreliable.
- secret evidence can be obtained through hypnosis.
Reading Passage 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 29-40 which are based on this passage.
Kids and Sport
Two Italian psychologists, Vincenzo Marte and Giovanni Notarnicola, describe the traditional spontaneous practice of sport by children -climbing trees, riding a bicycle along quiet roads, racing their friends across the fields - as an activity of freedom, a special activity of discovery and learning. In the case of free sporting activity, the child's time is given up entirely to the activity, as can be seen in the endless games of football young children play, which may then be followed by bicycle races and/or a swim in the river, for example.
Today, however, children's discovery of sport has become very different. It is often parents who take their children, when they are very young, to the swimming pool or to the sports grounds or sports halls. Children's first experience of sport thus takes place as an organised activity, which they see as organisation of their free time. By organising sport for children, and often choosing for them, we unfortunately create an imbalance, preventing them from managing their own play/sports time, thus depriving them an opportunity of autonomy and independence as was possible in the past.
A first possible reason for the imbalance in the practice of sport by children is therefore linked to the urban society we live in today. We need not regret the past. It is rather a question of knowing how to recreate this freedom in our towns and in the country, where sport is increasingly based on organised leisure activities. Doing one sport is now the rule in clubs. Sports grounds are often on the outskirts of cities, and are overcrowded and invariably enclosed, while recreational areas such as parks or hard-packed surfaces, are very few and far between. How can we find the balance of a varied and spontaneous relationship to sport under such conditions?
Some interesting answers have already been suggested, which take into account the need to recreate this freedom. Marte and Notarnicola have shown that children who have experienced such freedom were considered by sports trainers to be more capable when they joined organised sport aged 12-13. Their study concluded that no formal training, no matter how early in life it took place, could replace these first experiences.
Measures which would reverse this imbalance include: increasing the number of sports facilities which encourage self-organisation by the children, and also setting up unstructured playing areas with little in the way of equipment. Areas where street sport can be practised need to be established and sports clubs which offer multidisciplinary sports training should be supported. Children should be offered pre-school activity where they can be discover different sports.
For children, sport remains a special kind of discovery and learning, no matter how much adults limit and control the practice of early intensive training. Here is the second example of imbalance in children's sport. Today, sport is practised with early intensive training from the youngest possible age. Sometimes this is even before the age of six and is usually one specific sport within an organised framework. When adult-style competitions are introduced at an early age, the conditions which encourage a balanced development of children through sport are no longer respected.
Today, early intensive training is much more widely on offer. Many sports organisations claim that they are forced to do this type of training because of what is called 'the golden age' to acquire the physical skills. It is considered unthinkable for a young skater or gymnast to miss this period, because if they did so, they would fall so far behind the best, that they could never hope to catch up. Faced with this demand for early ability, it is important that a safety net is put in place to maximise the benefits and minimise the disadvantages of such intensive training.
Why do very young children give up sport? The most common reason for leaving a sport is to change to another sport, which in itself is no bad thing. However, children may leave a sport because they believe that they have received too much criticism and too many negative assessments. We know that young children, up to the age of eleven or twelve, cannot assess their own level of competence. They believe that if they are making an effort, then this in itself is a sign of their competence. We also know that young children are particularly sensitive to criticism from adults or peers. Trainers must therefore pay particular attention to this and avoid excessive criticism. They should also avoid any strategies that discriminate against the child; for example in team sports, naming first choice players and reserves. It should be remembered that primary school children's main desire is to have fun and socialise. The desire to improve and become a good competitor will develop later. This brief example shows that knowledge of child development is indispensable for those who take care of children at this age. It is up to trainers, sports doctors and psychologists to implement the measures necessary to limit this excessive early practice of sport by children.
A third source of imbalance which threatens children and sport is parental attitudes. The American psychologist, Rainer Martens, emphasises that, 'too often children's joy of sports is destroyed by adults who want glory through victory.' Several studies have shown that parental pressure is high on the list of reasons why children leave sport. The presence of mothers and fathers, can prevent children from considering sport as their own, where they can learn to master technical difficulties, manage interpersonal relations, and experience success and failure. As Martens highlights, 'adults are solely to blame if joy and sadness become synonymous, to a child, with victory or defeat.'
If the children make the decisions, this ensures that they enjoy being a child in sport, and are relaxed with their development as human beings. We need only observe the activity in a school playground, where games are organised on an improvised playing field, to understand that children show genetic traces of the hunter instinct, which naturally leads them to physical activity. Sport is included as something they want, and which they identify both with a means of release and as a form of self-expression. By acting as a route to self-discovery, sport gives children both the opportunity to know their limits, and to acquire tools which will allow them to surpass them. Playing sport is a source of learning, progress and pleasure; an additional way of enriching life.
Questions 29-36
Complete the summary using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.
...spontaneous sporting games are activities of (29) __________. Today sport is often (30) __________ by parents. A first imbalance occurs because (31) __________ are out of the city. A second imbalance is because of early (32) __________ training in only (33) __________ activity. Children give up sport due to negative (34) __________. Young children should have (35) __________. A third imbalance is due to parental (36) __________.
Question 29: ...activities of _____
- freedom
- discovery
- learning
Question 30: ...often _____ by parents
- chosen
- organised
- managed
Question 31: ...because _____ are out of the city
- sports grounds
- recreational areas
- parks
Question 32: ...early _____ training
- intensive
- formal
- specific
Question 33: ...in only _____ activity
- one
- one specific
- an organised
Question 34: ...due to negative _____
- assessments
- criticism
- feedback
Question 35: Young children should have _____
- fun
- friends
- success
Question 36: ...parental _____
- attitudes
- pressure
- presence
Questions 37-40
Choose the correct letter A-D.
37. Children's expression of this 'freedom' is important because...
- it allows them to be lazy.
- it means they can learn to swim and ride a bike.
- it puts them in charge of what they do and when they do it.
- it relieves the parents from transporting their children to sports.
38. Ways of allowing children to develop this 'freedom' include...
- making transport to sports clubs free.
- offering a range of different sports in each sports club.
- offering sporting tuition to pre-school children.
- making children play outside regularly.
39. To encourage young children to continue with sport, we should give them...
- accurate feedback about their ability at sport.
- experience of failure as well as success.
- experience of being reserves as well as first choice team members.
- the opportunity to mix socially with their peers at sport.
40. The author believes that...
- children's sport should not be organised by adults.
- playing sport is an important part of children's development.
- children need to learn that sport is about losing as well as winning.
- children can be psychologically and physiologically damaged by sport.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 3.0 - 4.5: Cần luyện tập thêm. Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố kỹ năng đọc lướt (skimming) để nắm ý chính và đọc quét (scanning) để tìm thông tin chi tiết.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 5.0 - 6.5: Khá tốt! Bạn có khả năng đọc hiểu tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc phân tích các dạng câu hỏi phức tạp và quản lý thời gian hiệu quả hơn giữa các đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 7.0+: Xuất sắc! Chúc mừng! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích thông tin rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
Reading Passage 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on this passage.
Sleepy Students Perform Worse
A. Staying up an hour or two past bedtime makes it far harder for kids to learn, say scientists who deprived youngsters of sleep and tested whether their teachers could tell the difference. They could. If parents want their children to thrive academically, "Getting them to sleep on time is as important as getting them to school on time," said psychologist Gahan Fallone, who conducted the research at Brown Medical School.
B. The study, unveiled Thursday at an American Medical Association (AMA) science writers meeting, was conducted on healthy children who had no evidence of sleep- or learning-related disorders. Difficulty paying attention was among the problems the sleepy youngsters faced - raising the question of whether sleep deprivation could prove even worse for people with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, or ADHD. Fallone now is studying that question, and suspects that sleep problems "could hit children with ADHD as a double whammy".
C. Sleep experts have long warned that Americans of all ages do not get enough shuteye. Sleep is important for health, bringing a range of benefits that, as Shakespeare put it, 'knits up the ravelled sleave of care'. Not getting enough is linked to a host of problems, from car crashes to drivers doze off to crippled memory and inhibited creativity. Exactly how much sleep correlates with school performance is hard to prove. So, Brown researchers set out to test whether teachers could detect problems with attention and learning when children stayed up late - even if the teachers had no idea how much sleep their students actually got.
D. They recruited seventy-four 6- to 12-year-olds from Rhode Island and southern Massachusetts for the three-week study. For one week, the youngsters went to bed and woke up at their usual times. They already were fairly good sleepers, getting nine to 9.5 hours of sleep a night. Another week, they were assigned to spend no fewer than ten hours in bed a night. The other week, they were kept up later than usual: First -and second-graders were in bed no more than eight hours and the older children no more than 6.5 hours. In addition to parents' reports, the youngsters wore motiondetecting wrist monitors to ensure compliance.
E. Teachers were not told how much the children slept or which week they stayed up late, but rated the students on a variety of performance measures each week. The teachers reported significantly more academic problems during the week of sleep deprivation, the study, which will be published in the journal Sleep in December, concluded. Students who got eight hours of sleep or less a night were more forgetful, had the most trouble learning new lessons, and had the most problems paying attention, reported Fallone, now at the Forest Institute of Professional Psychology.
F. Sleep has long been a concern of educators. Potter-Burns Elementary School sends notes to parents reminding them to make sure students get enough sleep prior to the school's yearly achievement testing. Another school considers it important enough to include in the school's monthly newsletters. Definitely, there is an impact on students' performance if they come to school tired. However, the findings may change physician practice, said Dr. Regina Benjamin, a family physician in Bayou La Batre, who reviewed the data at the Thursday's AMA meeting. "I don't ask about sleep" when evaluating academically struggling students, she noted. "I'm going to start."
G. So how much sleep do kids need? Recommended amounts range from about ten to eleven hours a night for young elementary students to 8.5 hours for teens. Fallone insists that his own second-grader get ten hours a night, even when it meant dropping soccer - season that practice did not start until 7:30 - too late for her to fit in dinner and time to wind down before she needed to be snoozing. "It's tough," he acknowledged, but "parents must believe in the importance of sleep."
Questions 1-4
The text has 7 paragraphs (A - G). Which paragraph contains each of the following pieces of information?
1. Traffic accidents are sometimes caused by lack of sleep.
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
2. The number of children included in the study.
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
3. How two schools are trying to deal with the problem.
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
4. How the effect of having less sleep was measured.
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
Questions 5-8
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each gap.
5. Fallone is now studying the sleep patterns of children with (5) __________.
- ADHD
- learning disorders
- sleep deprivation
6. The researchers used (6) __________ that show movement to check that children went to bed at the right time.
- parent reports
- wrist monitors
- teacher ratings
7. Students with less sleep had problems with memory, remembering new material, and (7) __________.
- academic problems
- forgetfulness
- paying attention
8. Fallone admitted that it was (8) __________ for children to get enough sleep.
- important
- tough
- a problem
Questions 9-13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
9. The results of the study were first distributed to principals of American schools.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
10. Some of the children in the study had previously shown signs of sleeping problems.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
11. The study could influence how doctors deal with children's health problems.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
12. Fallone does not let his daughter play soccer.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
13. Staying up later is acceptable if the child is doing homework.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
Reading Passage 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 - 26, which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.
The Brains Business
A. For those of a certain age and educational background, it is hard to think of higher education without thinking of ancient institutions. Some universities are of a venerable age - the University of Bologna was founded in 1088, the University of Oxford in 1096 - and many of them have a strong sense of tradition. The truly old ones make the most of their pedigrees, and those of a more recent vintage work hard to create an aura of antiquity. Yet these tradition-loving (or -creating) institutions are currently enduring a thunderstorm of changes so fundamental that some say the very idea of the university is being challenged. Universities are experimenting with new ways of funding (most notably through student fees), forging partnerships with private companies and engaging in mergers and acquisitions.Such changes are tugging at the ivy's roots.
B. This is happening for four reasons. The first is the democratisation of higher education "massification" in the language of the educational profession. In the rich world, massification has been going on for some time. The proportion of adults with higher educational qualifications in developed countries almost doubled between l975 and 2000, From 22% to 41%. Most of the rich countries are still struggling to digest this huge growth in numbers. Now massification is spreading to the developing world. China doubled its student population in the late 1990s, and India is trying to follow suit.
C. The second reason is the rise of the knowledge economy. The world is in the grips of a "soft revolution" in which knowledge is replacing physical resources as the main driver of economic growth. Between 1985 and 1997, the contribution of knowledge-based industries to total value added increased from 51% to 59% in Germany and from 45% to 51% in Britain. The best companies are now devoting at least a third of their investment to knowledge-intensive intangibles such as R&D, licensing, and marketing. Universities are among the most important engines of the knowledge economy. Not only do they produce the brain workers who man it, they also provide much of its backbone, from laboratories to libraries to computer networks.
D. The third factor is globalisation. The death of distance is transforming academia just as radically as it is transforming business. The number of people from developed countries studying abroad has doubled over the past twenty years, to 1.9 million; universities are opening campuses all around the world; and a growing number of countries are trying to turn higher education into an export industry. The fourth is competition. Traditional universities are being forced to compete for students and research grants, and private companies are trying to break into a sector which they regard as "the new health care". The World Bank calculates that global spending on higher education amounts to $300 billion a year, or 1 % of global economic output. There are more than 80 million students worldwide, and 3.5 million people are employed to teach them or look after them.
E. All this sounds as though a golden age for universities has arrived. However, inside academia, particularly in Europe, it does not feel like it. Academics complain and administrators are locked in bad-tempered exchanges with the politicians who fund them. What has gone wrong? The biggest problem is the role of the state. If more and more governments are embracing massification, few of them are willing to draw the appropriate conclusion from their enthusiasm: that they should either provide the requisite hinds (as the Scandinavian countries do) or allow universities to charge realistic fees. Many governments have tried to square the circle through lighter management, but management cannot make up for lack of resources.
F. What, if anything can be done? Techno-utopians believe that higher education is ripe for revolution. The university, they say, is a hopelessly antiquated institution, wedded in outdated practices such as tenure and lectures, and incapable of serving a new world of mass audiences and just-in-time information. "Thirty wars from now the big university campuses will be relics," says Peter Drucker, a veteran management guru. "I consider the American research university of the past 40 years to be a failure." Fortunately, in his view, help is on the way in the form of internet tuition and for-profit universities. Cultural conservatives, on the other hand, believe that the best way forward is backward. They think it is foolish to waste higher education on people who would rather study "Seinfeld" than Socrates, and disingenuous to confuse the pursuit of truth with the pursuit of profit.
Questions 14-17
The text has 6 paragraphs (A - F). Which paragraph best fits each of the following headings?
14. Education for the masses
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
15. Future possibilities
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
16. Globalisation and competition
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
17. Funding problem
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
Questions 18-22
According to the text, FIVE of the following statements are true. Choose the first true statement.
Question 18:
- Some universities are joining with each other.
- There are not enough graduates in developed countries.
- Many top companies now spend one-third of their budget on research and marketing.
- The number of people from developed countries studying outside their home countries has doubled in the last two decades.
- Scandinavian governments provide enough money for their universities.
- The largest university in the world is in Turkey.
- Italian students must have a five-minute interview with a professor before being accepted into university.
- Peter Drucker foresees the end of university campuses.
Question 19: Choose the second true statement.
- Some universities are joining with each other.
- There are not enough graduates in developed countries.
- Many top companies now spend one-third of their budget on research and marketing.
- The number of people from developed countries studying outside their home countries has doubled in the last two decades.
- Scandinavian governments provide enough money for their universities.
- The largest university in the world is in Turkey.
- Italian students must have a five-minute interview with a professor before being accepted into university.
- Peter Drucker foresees the end of university campuses.
Question 20: Choose the third true statement.
- Some universities are joining with each other.
- There are not enough graduates in developed countries.
- Many top companies now spend one-third of their budget on research and marketing.
- The number of people from developed countries studying outside their home countries has doubled in the last two decades.
- Scandinavian governments provide enough money for their universities.
- The largest university in the world is in Turkey.
- Italian students must have a five-minute interview with a professor before being accepted into university.
- Peter Drucker foresees the end of university campuses.
Question 21: Choose the fourth true statement.
- Some universities are joining with each other.
- There are not enough graduates in developed countries.
- Many top companies now spend one-third of their budget on research and marketing.
- The number of people from developed countries studying outside their home countries has doubled in the last two decades.
- Scandinavian governments provide enough money for their universities.
- The largest university in the world is in Turkey.
- Italian students must have a five-minute interview with a professor before being accepted into university.
- Peter Drucker foresees the end of university campuses.
Question 22: Choose the fifth true statement.
- Some universities are joining with each other.
- There are not enough graduates in developed countries.
- Many top companies now spend one-third of their budget on research and marketing.
- The number of people from developed countries studying outside their home countries has doubled in the last two decades.
- Scandinavian governments provide enough money for their universities.
- The largest university in the world is in Turkey.
- Italian students must have a five-minute interview with a professor before being accepted into university.
- Peter Drucker foresees the end of university campuses.
Questions 23-24
What are TWO problems currently faced by universities? Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Question 23: First problem
- pressure to charge students higher tuition fees
- conflicts between university administrators and government funders
- decrease in student enrollment worldwide
- outdated library and lab resources
- shortage of qualified academic staff
Question 24: Second problem
- pressure to charge students higher tuition fees
- conflicts between university administrators and government funders
- decrease in student enrollment worldwide
- outdated library and lab resources
- shortage of qualified academic staff
Questions 25-26
What are TWO possible solutions proposed? Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Question 25: First solution
- Expanding the use of internet-based tuition and private universities.
- Replacing university professors with business professionals.
- Returning to traditional academic values and subjects.
- Focusing all education on job-specific training only
- Closing traditional campuses to save costs.
Question 26: Second solution
- Expanding the use of internet-based tuition and private universities.
- Replacing university professors with business professionals.
- Returning to traditional academic values and subjects.
- Focusing all education on job-specific training only
- Closing traditional campuses to save costs.
Reading Passage 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27 - 40, which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.
Sunday Is a Fun Day for Modern Brits
In a new study, Essex University sociologists have dissected the typical British Sunday, and found we get up later and do fewer chores than we did 40 years ago - and we are far more likely to be out shopping or enjoying ourselves than cooking Sunday lunch. Academics at the university's Institute of Social and Economic Research asked 10,000 people to keep a detailed diary of how they spent Sundays in 2001. Then they compared the results with 3,500 diaries written in 1961, a treasure trove of information that had been uncovered 'in two egg boxes and a tea chest' in the basement of the BBC by ISER's director, Professor Jonathan Gershuny.
The contrast between the two periods could not be more striking. Forty years ago, Sunday mornings were a flurry of activity as men and women - especially women - caught up on their weekly chores and cooked up a storm in the afternoon. Women rarely allowed themselves any 'leisure' until the afternoon, after the dishes were cleaned. In 1961, more than a fifth of all men and women in Britain were sitting at a table by 2 p.m., most likely tucking into a roast with all the trimmings. Then there would be another rush to the table between 5 p.m. and 6 p.m. for high tea.
Since the arrival of brunch, the gastropub and the all-you-can-eat Sunday buffet at the local curry house, such institutions have become extinct. Today, we graze the entire day. You only have two free days a week. You don't want to have to waste one because there is nothing to do but watch TV. Sunday has leapfrogged Saturday in the fun stakes. On Saturdays, you are recovering from the week. Sundays are the last bastion of the weekend - you want to get as much as you can out of the day before you have to go back to work.
According to researchers, the ability to trail around B&Q has made the most dramatic difference to our Sundays. In 1961, adults spent an average of 20 minutes a day shopping; by 2001, it was 50 minutes. 'Shopping used to be a gender segregated activity that would take place during the week, while the husband was at work. Now it's as much men as women,' said Gershuny. We're all more likely to be relaxing or shopping on a Sunday morning these days than scrubbing the floor or putting up shelves. 'Men now stay in bed longer, and get up not, as previously, to work around the house, but rather to shop or to pursue other outside leisure activities.'
Men do about the same amount of unpaid work around the house as they used to on a Sunday, but it's spread throughout the whole day, instead of crammed into the morning. Women do considerably less than 40 years ago. Indeed, men and women were 'pretty much different species' in 1961, as far as the way they spent Sundays was concerned, with men far more likely to be out of the house - at the pub or playing football - before lunch. 'For women, leisure happened only in the afternoon. But by 2001, the shapes of men's and women's Sundays were much more similar,' says the report.
Jonathan Bentley Atchison (25, Clapham, London, works in communications)
'Sunday for me is all about holding on to the weekend and trying to stave off Monday. An ideal Sunday would involve getting up and having a nice lunch. Sometimes we cook, but more often I go out to get a roast or bangers and mash at a gastropub. If it is a nice day, there is nothing better than sitting outside in the beer garden, reading the Sunday papers - one tabloid and one broadsheet - with a Guinness, extra cold. Sunday is often a chance to visit other parts of London, as long as it is not too far. I use Sundays to go clothes shopping, or to the cinema. I often go to Camden market, as I love the international foods on offer and hunting for bargains and vintage clothes.'
Hazel Hallows (42, Manchester, housewife, married with three children)
'I am usually at home making the Sunday lunch. Some friends go out to eat, but my husband Mark loves a roast, so we don't. After that, I do the washing, like every day, and then I take my daughter Grace to netball and watch her play. Mark potters around - last Sunday, he tidied the garage. He works six days a week, so on Sunday he stays at home. I don't like shopping on a Sunday because every man and his dog is out. I don't work, so I can do it in the week. I tend to watch television and chill out. When summer comes, we go to barbecues at family or friends' houses. When I was growing up, my dad would do the gardening and paint the fences while my mum would do housework.'
Bryan Jones (79, pensioner, Frampton Cotterell, near Bristol)
'When we were at home, I would get out in the garden, and my late wife Rose would cook the Sunday lunch and do the housework. I was an engineer, and Rose worked full-time as a supermarket manageress. In 1961, we had just moved to Bristol, and I spent Sunday maintaining the new house. The washing and ironing had to be done - it was a working-together atmosphere. We would sometimes go and spend the day with Rose's sister or other relatives. In 1961, it was the first time I had a new car, so we spent time in the countryside or garden centres. Now, I get up on Sundays and spend a couple of hours reading the newspapers.'
Questions 27-30
Choose the correct letter.
27. According to the diaries, in 1961, women rarely had free time on Sunday...
- mornings.
- afternoons.
- evenings.
28. People want to do more on Sundays because...
- more shops are open.
- it is a good day to graze.
- they are tired on Saturdays.
29. Shopping habits have changed since 1961 in that...
- people shop less at weekends.
- men shop more than women.
- men do as much shopping as women.
- women do far less housework on Sundays.
30. Compared with 1961,...
- women do far less housework on Sundays.
- men do far less housework on Sundays.
- men and women do far less housework on Sundays.
Questions 31-35
Complete the sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
31. Professor Gershuny discovered thousands of (31) __________ at the BBC.
- diaries
- egg boxes
- tea chests
32. In 1961, people ate (32) __________ at 5 or 6 o'clock.
- a roast
- high tea
- brunch
33. In 2001, people spent (33) __________ 50 minutes on shopping on Sundays.
- an average of
- more than
- less than
34. Shopping is something that is not as (34) __________ as it was in 1961.
- gender segregated
- time-consuming
- popular
35. In 1961, men would often go for a drink or be (35) __________ before lunch.
- at the pub
- out of the house
- playing football
Questions 36-40
Do the following statements agree with the information in Reading Passage 3?
36. Mr. Atchison usually eats out.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
37. Mrs. Hallows' husband does no household chores on Sundays.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
38. Mrs. Hallows thinks the shops are too busy on Sundays.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
39. Mr. Jones is a widower.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
40. Mr. Jones does household chores on Sundays.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 3.0 - 4.5: Cần luyện tập thêm. Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố kỹ năng đọc lướt (skimming) để nắm ý chính và đọc quét (scanning) để tìm thông tin chi tiết.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 5.0 - 6.5: Khá tốt! Bạn có khả năng đọc hiểu tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc phân tích các dạng câu hỏi phức tạp và quản lý thời gian hiệu quả hơn giữa các đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 7.0+: Xuất sắc! Chúc mừng! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích thông tin rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
Reading Passage 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on this passage.
Daydreaming
Everyone daydreams sometimes. We sit or lie down, close our eyes and use our imagination to think about something that might happen in the future or could have happened in the past. Most daydreaming is pleasant. We would like the daydream to happen and we would be very happy if it did actually happen. We might daydream that we are in another person’s place, or doing something that we have always wanted to do, or that other people like or admire us much more than they normally do.
Daydreams are not dreams, because we can only daydream if we are awake. Also, we choose what our daydreams will be about, which we cannot usually do with dreams. With many daydreams, we know that what we imagine is unlikely to happen. At least, if it does happen, it probably will not do so in the way we want it to. However, some daydreams are about things that are likely to happen. With these, our daydreams often help us to work out what we want to do, or how to do it to get the best results. So, these daydreams are helpful. We use our imagination to help us understand the world and other people.
Daydreams can help people to be creative. People in creative or artistic careers, such as composers, novelists and filmmakers, develop new ideas through daydreaming. This is also true of research scientists and mathematicians. In fact, Albert Einstein said that imagination is more important than knowledge because knowledge is limited whereas imagination is not.
Research in the 1980s showed that most daydreams are about ordinary, everyday events. It also showed that over 75% of workers in so-called ‘boring jobs’, such as lorry drivers and security guards, spend a lot of time daydreaming in order to make their time at work more interesting. Recent research has also shown that daydreaming has a positive effect on the brain. Experiments with MRI brain scans show that the parts of the brain linked with complex problem-solving are more active during daydreaming. Researchers conclude that daydreaming is an activity in which the brain consolidates learning. In this respect, daydreaming is the same as dreaming during sleep.
Although there do seem to be many advantages with daydreaming, in many cultures it is considered a bad thing to do. One reason for this is that when you are daydreaming, you are not working. In the 19th century, for example, people who daydreamed a lot were judged to be lazy. This happened in particular when people started working in factories on assembly lines. When you work on an assembly line, all you do is one small task again and again, every time exactly the same. It is rather repetitive and, obviously, you cannot be creative. So many people decided that there was no benefit in daydreaming.
Other people have said that daydreaming leads to ‘escapism’ and that this is not healthy, either. Escapist people spend a lot of time living in a dream world in which they are successful and popular, instead of trying to deal with the problems they face in the real world. Such people often seem to be unhappy and are unable or unwilling to improve their daily lives. Indeed, recent studies show that people who often daydream have fewer close friends than other people. In fact, they often do not have any close friends at all.
Questions 1-8
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
1. People usually daydream when they are walking around.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
2. Some people can daydream when they are asleep.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
3. Some daydreams help us to be more successful in our lives.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
4. Most lorry drivers daydream in their jobs to make them more interesting.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
5. Factory workers daydream more than lorry drivers.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
6. Daydreaming helps people to be creative.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
7. Old people daydream more than young people.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
8. Escapist people are generally very happy.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
Questions 9-10
Complete the sentences. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text.
9. Writers, artists and other creative people use daydreaming to (9) __________.
- develop new ideas
- be more productive
- understand the world
10. The areas of the brain used in daydreaming are also used for complicated (10) __________.
- learning
- imagination
- problem-solving
Question 11
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Daydreams are...
- dreams that we have when we fall asleep in daytime.
- about things that happened that make us sad.
- often about things that we would like to happen.
- activities that only a few people are able to do.
Question 12
In the nineteenth century, many people believed that daydreaming was...
- helpful in factory work.
- a way of avoiding work.
- something that few people did.
- a healthy activity.
Question 13
People who daydream a lot...
- usually have creative jobs.
- are much happier than other people.
- are less intelligent than other people.
- do not have as many friends as other people.
Reading Passage 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 - 25, which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.
TRICKY SUMS AND PSYCHOLOGY
A. In their first years of studying mathematics at school, children all over the world usually have to learn the times table, also known as the multiplication table, which shows what you get when you multiply numbers together. Children have traditionally learned their times table by going from '1 times 1 is 1' all the way up to '12 times 12 is 144'.
B. Times tables have been around for a very long time now. The oldest known tables using base 10 numbers, the base that is now used everywhere in the world, are written on bamboo strips dating from 305 BC, found in China. However, in many European cultures the times table is named after the Ancient Greek mathematician and philosopher Pythagoras (570-495 BC). And so it is called the Table of Pythagoras in many languages, including French and Italian.
C. In 1820, in his book The Philosophy of Arithmetic, the mathematician John Leslie recommended that young pupils memories the times table up to 25 x 25. Nowadays, however, educators generally believe it is important for children to memorise the table up to 9 x 9, 10 x 10 or 12 x12.
D. The current aim in the UK is for school pupils to know all their times tables up to 12 x 12 by the age of nine. However, many people do not know them, even as adults. Recently, some politicians have been asked arithmetical questions of this kind. For example, in 1998, the schools minister Stephen Byers was asked the answer to 7 x 8. He got the answer wrong, saying 54 rather than 56, and everyone laughed at him.
E. In 2014, a young boy asked the UK Chancellor George Osborne the exact same question. As he had passed A-level maths and was in charge of the UK’s economic policies at the time, you would expect him to know the answer. However, he simply said, 'I've made it a rule in life not to answer such questions.'
F. Why would a politician refuse to answer such a question? It is certainly true that some sums are much harder than others. Research has shown that learning and remembering sums involving 6,7,8 and 9 tends to be harder than remembering sums involving other numbers. And it is even harder when 6,7,8 and 9 are multiplied by each other. Studies often find that the hardest sum is 6x8, with 7x8 not far behind. However, even though 7x8 is a relatively difficult sum, it is unlikely that George Osborne did not know the answer. So there must be some other reason why he refused to answer the question.
G. The answer is that Osborne was being 'put on the spot' and he didn't like it. It is well known that when there is a lot of pressure to do something right, people often have difficulty doing something that they normally find easy. When you put someone on the spot and ask such a question, it causes stress. The person's heart beats faster and their adrenalin levels go up. As a result, people will often make mistakes that they would not normally make. This is called 'choking'. Choking often happens in sport, such as when a footballer takes a crucial penalty. In the same way, the boy's question put Osborne under great pressure. He knew it would be a disaster for him if he got the answer to such a simple question wrong and feared that he might choke. And that is why he refused to answer the question.
Questions 14-19
The text has seven paragraphs, A-G. Which paragraph contains the following information?
14. a 19th-century opinion of what children should learn
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
15. the most difficult sums
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
16. the effect of pressure on doing something
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
17. how children learn the times table
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
18. a politician who got a sum wrong
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
19. a history of the times table
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
Questions 20-25
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
20. Pythagoras invented the times table in China.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
21. Stephen Byers and George Osborne were asked the same question.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
22. All children in the UK have to learn the multiplication table.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
23. George Osborne did not know the answer to 7 × 8.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
24. 7 × 8 is the hardest sum that children have to learn.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
25. Stephen Byers got the sum wrong because he choked.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
Reading Passage 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 26-40 which are based on this passage.
Care in the Community
'Bedlam' is a word that has become synonymous in the English language with chaos and disorder. The term itself derives from the shortened name for a former 16th century London institution for the mentally ill, known as St. Mary of Bethlehem. This institution was so notorious that its name was to become a byword for mayhem. Patient 'treatment' amounted to little more than legitimised abuse. Inmates were beaten and forced to live in unsanitary conditions, whilst others were placed on display to a curious public as a side-show. There is little indication to suggest that other institutions founded at around the same time in other European countries were much better.
Even up until the mid-twentieth century, institutions for the mentally ill were regarded as being more places of isolation and punishment than healing and solace. In popular literature of the Victorian era that reflected true-life events, individuals were frequently sent to the 'madhouse' as a legal means of permanently disposing of an unwanted heir or spouse. Later, in the mid-twentieth century, institutes for the mentally ill regularly carried out invasive brain surgery known as a 'lobotomy' on violent patients without their consent. The aim was to 'calm' the patient but ended up producing a patient that was little more than a zombie. Such a procedure is well documented to devastating effect in the film 'One Flew Over the Cuckoo's Nest'. Little wonder then that the appalling catalogue of treatment of the mentally ill led to a call for change from social activists and psychologists alike.
Improvements began to be seen in institutions from the mid-50s onwards, along with the introduction of care in the community for less severely ill patients. Community care was seen as a more humane and purposeful approach to dealing with the mentally ill. Whereas institutionalised patients lived out their existence in confinement, forced to obey institutional regulations, patients in the community were free to live a relatively independent life. The patient was never left purely to their own devices as a variety of services could theoretically be accessed by the individual. In its early stages, however, community care consisted primarily of help from the patient's extended family network. In more recent years, such care has extended to the provision of specialist community mental health teams (CMHTs) in the UK. Such teams cover a wide range of services from rehabilitation to home treatment and assessment. In addition, psychiatric nurses are on hand to administer prescription medication and give injections. The patient is therefore provided with the necessary help that they need to survive in the everyday world whilst maintaining a degree of autonomy.
Often, though, when a policy is put into practice, its failings become apparent. This is true for the policy of care in the community. Whilst back-up services may exist, an individual may not call upon them when needed, due to reluctance or inability to assess their own condition. As a result, such an individual may be alone during a critical phase of their illness, which could lead them to self-harm or even become a threat to other members of their community. Whilst this might be an extreme-case scenario, there is also the issue of social alienation that needs to be considered. Integration into the community may not be sufficient to allow the individual to find work, leading to poverty and isolation. Social exclusion could then cause a relapse as the individual is left to battle mental health problems alone. The solution, therefore, is to ensure that the patient is always in touch with professional helpers and not left alone to fend for themselves. It should always be remembered that whilst you can take the patient out of the institution, you can't take the institution out of the patient.
When questioned about care in the community, there seems to be a division of opinion amongst members of the public and within the mental healthcare profession itself. Dr. Mayalla, practising clinical psychologist, is inclined to believe that whilst certain patients may benefit from care in the community, the scheme isn't for everyone. 'Those suffering moderate cases of mental illness stand to gain more from care in the community than those with more pronounced mental illness. I don't think it's a one-size-fits-all policy. But I also think that there is a far better infrastructure of helpers and social workers in place now than previously and the scheme stands a greater chance of success than in the past.'
Anita Brown, mother of three, takes a different view. 'As a mother, I'm very protective towards my children. As a result, I would not put my support behind any scheme that I felt might put my children in danger... I guess there must be assessment methods in place to ensure that dangerous individuals are not let loose amongst the public but I'm not for it at all. I like to feel secure where I live, but more to the point, that my children are not under any threat.'
Bob Ratchett, a former mental health nurse, takes a more positive view on community care projects. 'Having worked in the field myself, I've seen how a patient can benefit from living an independent life, away from an institution. Obviously, only individuals well on their way to recovery would be suitable for consideration as participants in such a scheme. If you think about it, is it really fair to condemn an individual to a lifetime in an institution when they could be living a fairly fulfilled and independent life outside the institution?'
Questions 26-31
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
26. Which of the following statements is accurate?
- In the 20th century, illegal surgical procedures were carried out on the mentally ill.
- The Victorian era saw an increase in mental illness amongst married couples.
- Mental institutions of the past were better-equipped for dealing with the mentally ill.
- In the past, others often benefited when a patient was sent to a mental asylum.
27. What does the writer mean by patient treatment being 'legitimised abuse'?
- There were proper guidelines for the punishment of mentally ill patients.
- Maltreatment of mentally ill patients was not illegal and so was tolerated.
- Only those who were legally entitled to do so could punish mentally ill patients.
- Physical abuse of mentally ill patients was a legal requirement of mental institutions.
28. What brought about changes in the treatment of mentally ill patients?
- A radio documentary exposed patient maltreatment.
- People rebelled against the consistent abuse of mentally ill patients.
- Previous treatments of mentally ill patients were proved to be ineffective.
- The maltreatment of mentally ill patients could never be revealed.
29. What was a feature of early care in the community schemes?
- Patient support was the responsibility more of relatives than professionals.
- Advanced professional help was available to patients.
- All mentally ill patients could benefit from the scheme.
- Patients were allowed to enjoy full independence.
30. What is true of care in the community schemes today?
- They permit greater patient autonomy.
- More professional services are available to patients.
- Family support networks have become unnecessary.
- All patients can now become part of these schemes.
31. What can be said of the writer's attitude towards care in the community?
- He believes that the scheme has proved to be a failure.
- He believes that it can only work under certain circumstances.
- He believes that it will never work as mentally ill patients will always be disadvantaged.
- He believes it has failed due to patient neglect by professional helpers.
Questions 32-36
Match each statement to the correct person (A-C).
A. Dr. Mayalla
B. Anita Brown
C. Bob Ratchett
32. This person acknowledges inadequacies in the concept but recognizes improvements.
- Dr. Mayalla
- Anita Brown
- Bob Ratchett
33. This person is critical of traditional care methods.
- Dr. Mayalla
- Anita Brown
- Bob Ratchett
34. This person’s views have been moderated by professional contact.
- Dr. Mayalla
- Anita Brown
- Bob Ratchett
35. This person places the welfare of others above the mentally ill.
- Dr. Mayalla
- Anita Brown
- Bob Ratchett
36. This person acknowledges that a mistrust may be unfounded.
- Dr. Mayalla
- Anita Brown
- Bob Ratchett
Questions 37-40
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
37. There is a better understanding of the dynamics of mental illness today.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
38. Community care schemes do not provide adequate psychological support for patients.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
39. Dr. Mayalla believes that the scheme is less successful than in the past.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
40. The goal of community care schemes is to make patients less dependent on the system.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 3.0 - 4.5: Cần luyện tập thêm. Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố kỹ năng đọc lướt (skimming) để nắm ý chính và đọc quét (scanning) để tìm thông tin chi tiết.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 5.0 - 6.5: Khá tốt! Bạn có khả năng đọc hiểu tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc phân tích các dạng câu hỏi phức tạp và quản lý thời gian hiệu quả hơn giữa các đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 7.0+: Xuất sắc! Chúc mừng! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích thông tin rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
Reading Passage 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
Survivor from the sky
In a remarkable documentary, Wings of Hope, German director Werner Herzog re-counts the true story of an eighteen-year-old girl, the sole survivor of a plane crash in the Amazon jungle in 1971. Twenty-nine years later, Herzog returns to the jungle with Juliane Koepke, now a 46-year-old biologist, and she tells her amazing story on film.
Juliane had just graduated from high school in Lima, Peru and, with her mother, was flying out to spend Christmas at her father's research station in the jungle. A half hour into the flight they encountered a horrific storm. In the midst of wild turbulence, the plane was struck by lightning and fell into a nosedive. Passengers screamed as baggage flew around the compartment. Then the plane broke into pieces and suddenly Juliane found herself outside free-falling 30,000 feet. 'I was suspended in mid-air, still in my seat. It wasn't so much that I had left the plane but that the plane had left me. It simply wasn't there any more. I was all alone with my row of seats,' says Juliane. 'I sailed on through the air, then I tumbled into a fall. The seatbelt squeezed my stomach and I couldn't breathe any more.' Before she lost consciousness, Juliane saw the dense jungle below, 'a deep green, like broccoli', with no clearings for hundreds of miles.
Somehow, miraculously, Juliane survived that fall from the sky. In the film, she speculates on a number of factors which may have combined to save her. First, the storm had produced a strong updraft from the thunder clouds. Secondly, being strapped into a row of seats, she was aware of falling in a spiralling movement, like a maple seed pod. Then, hitting the canopy of trees, she tumbled through a maze of vines which slowed her landing in deep mud.
But surviving the fall, though miraculous in itself, was just the beginning. When Juliane awoke hours later, wet and covered with mud, she was still strapped to her seat. Staggering to her feet, she assessed her injuries: a fractured bone in the neck, concussion and deep cuts in her leg and back. She was also in shock, lost and totally alone in the Amazon jungle.
No doubt it was her familiarity with the wilderness that enabled her to cope. Her parents were biologists and Juliane had grown up in the jungle. She realised her only hope was to follow a little stream of water nearby, trusting that it would eventually lead to a larger river and rescue. With no provisions, dressed in the miniskirt she had worn on the plane and wearing just one shoe, she set off through the jungle. She passed broken fragments from the plane - a wheel, an engine. 'Initially, I saw planes circling above me, but after a few days I realised the search had been called off,' she said.
Surprisingly she felt no hunger but as the days passed her health was deteriorating rapidly. The gash in her shoulder, where flies had laid their eggs was now crawling with maggots. 'I knew I'd perish in the jungle so I stayed in the water.' Walking in the stream, however, presented one risk more serious than any others. Before each step she had to poke ahead in the sand with a stick, to avoid treading on poisonous sting rays, lying hidden on the bottom.
As the stream grew into a river, swimming was the only option. However, here in deeper water, there were new threats. Crocodiles basking on the shores slipped silently into the water as she passed. Juliane trusted that they feared humans and were entering the water to hide. She swam on. On the tenth day, starving and barely conscious, she spotted a hut and a canoe. They belonged to three woodcutters working nearby. Rescue was at hand.
For this 46-year-old woman, re-living such a traumatic experience on film must have been a great challenge. But she shows little emotion. Flying back into the jungle, she sits in the same seat (19F) as on that fateful day. She is dispassionate, unemotional in describing the flight. On the ground, when they finally locate the crash site, in dense jungle, Juliane is scientific in her detachment, looking through the debris, now buried under dense vegetation. She examines a girl's purse, the skeleton of a suitcase. Walking along the stream, she spots the engine which she remembers passing on the third day. Her arms and legs are covered with mosquitoes, but she seems to ignore all discomfort. Then, back in the town, standing in front of a monument erected in memory of the victims of the crash, entitled Alas de Esperanza (Wings of Hope), Juliane comments simply, 'I emerged, the sole embodiment of hope from this disaster.
Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage.
1. How old was Juliane at the time of the crash?
- eighteen years old
- eighteen
- 46 years old
2. What is her occupation now?
- director
- biologist
- graduate
3. What was the cause of the plane crash?
- a horrific storm
- struck by lightning
- wild turbulence
Question 4
Choose the correct letter A-D.
What happened to the plane?
- It broke apart in the air
- It hit trees and exploded.
- It crashed into a mountainside.
- It hit the ground and burst into flames.
Question 5
Which of the following did NOT help to slow her fall?
- an updraft caused by storm clouds
- hitting vines
- the section of seats to which she was attached
- a parachute
Question 6
Which of the following injuries did she sustain?
- a broken foot
- a broken arm
- concussion
- cuts on her head
Question 7
What helped her to survive?
- Knowledge of the jungle
- a map showing the location of the river
- appropriate clothing and shoes
- food supplies from the plane
Question 8
What was the biggest threat to her survival?
- infected wounds
- sting rays
- starvation
- crocodiles
Question 9
How long was she lost in the jungle?
- 3 days
- 5 days
- 10 days
- 15 days
Question 10
How was she finally rescued?
- A search party found her in the jungle.
- Native hunters found her.
- She signaled to a plane from the river.
- She reached a campsite along the river.
Questions 11-14
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in this passage?
11. Other survivors of the crash were found in the jungle.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
12. Juliane was upset when she re-visited the crash site.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
13. Wings of Hope is the name given to a memorial statue.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
14. Juliane suffered nightmares for many years as a result of her experience.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
Reading Passage 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-27, which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.
The race to make spider silk
The strength, toughness, and elasticity of silk continue to fascinate scientists, who wonder what gives this natural material its unusual qualities. Finer than human hair, lighter than cotton, and ounce for ounce stronger than steel, silk is of special interest to materials researchers. They are trying to duplicate its properties and synthesise it for large-scale production. Silk holds the promise of wear-resistant shoes and clothes; stronger ropes, nets, seatbelts and parachutes; rustfree panels and bumpers for automobiles; improved sutures and bandages; artificial tendons and ligaments; supports for weakened blood vessels as well as bulletproof vests.
Many insects secrete silks of varying quality. Best known is the moth bombyx mori, whose caterpillar is commonly known as the silkworm. It spins its cocoon from a single thread between 300 and 900 metres long and has been used for centuries to make fine garments. But the focus of scientific attention today is on spider silk: tougher, stretchier, and more waterproof than silkworm strands. Spiders make as many as seven different types of silk, but one spider and two types of silk are at the centre of intense interest. The spider is the golden orb-weaving spider, nephila clavipes. Its two silks under investigation go by the evocative names 'dragline' and 'capture'.
Dragline is the silk which forms the frame for the wheel-shaped webs and enables the dangling spider to drop down and grab its prey. This silk exhibits a combination of strength and toughness unmatched by high-performance synthetic fibre.
Capture silk is the resilient substance at the centre of the web. To catch a speeding insect, it may stretch to almost three times its original length. Insects get entangled in the sticky web because the stretchiness of capture silk lets the web move back and forth after the insect hits it. If the web were stiff, the insect might just bounce off. Whereas dragline is stronger, capture silk is more flexible, five times more flexible in fact.
Because the orb weaver's survival depends on its silk, some 400 million years of evolution have fine-tuned a remarkably tough and versatile material. Now, research groups all over the world are competing to spin the first artificial spider silk, a job that requires a three-step approach: to determine the fibre's molecular architecture, to understand the genes that yield silk proteins, and then to learn how to spin the raw material into threads.
The first two steps are well underway. The molecular structure for both dragline and capture silk is known and now researchers have cloned several genes for the silks and unravelled their protein structure.
The next step is to find hosts for the artificial genes. Plants and fungi, as well as bacteria, are being considered. If a hardy plant could express a dragline silk gene, silk proteins could eventually be harvested in large quantities, processed into a liquid, polymer, and spun in factories. A different experimental approach is to insert the web gene into goats in order to collect the protein from the goats' milk. Goats are being used instead of the simpler and much cheaper bacteria, because the secret of the protein's strength lies in how the molecules cross-link with one another. When bacteria is used to make artificial web, the protein folds in a way that prevents it from cross-linking properly, resulting in hard white lumps. The spider makes protein in a manner similar to the way mammals make milk, so the researchers hope that the protein made in the goats' mammary glands will be able to cross-link properly. Once the protein is extracted from the goats' milk, the next step is to find a way to spin it.
Spiders make their silk in environmentally friendly ways. They process proteins from water-based solutions which, from a manufacturing point of view, is very attractive. The process of making synthetic fibres like nylon, on the other hand, requires petroleum products or organic solvents and results in pollution. So bio-technologists are motivated by both the practical and economic potential of generating artificial spider silk. Globally, as much as 60 per cent of the threads used to weave clothing come from natural fibre, including cotton, wool, and silk. The aim is to offer substitutes for natural fibres that are free of the problems of poor wash-wear performance: stretching, wrinkling arid shrinkage. They are seeking a better-than-natural alternative fibre for which there is a major market. Bio-inspired materials are providing a new frontier for the fibre business.
Questions 15-19
Classify the following as relating to:
A. the silk of bombyx mori
B. dragline silk of nephila clavipes
C. capture silk of nephila clavipes
15. forms the framework of a web
- A
- B
- C
16. most elastic silk
- A
- B
- C
17. allows predator to drop quickly
- A
- B
- C
18. single strand can be up to 900 metres long
- A
- B
- C
19. strongest silk
- A
- B
- C
Questions 20-24
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer?
20. All spiders secrete silk.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
21. Artificial genes for spider silk have been produced.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
22. Spider silk protein occurs naturally in goats' milk.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
23. China is leading research efforts in the area of spider silk.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
24. Spider silk is now being produced commercially.
- YES
- NO
- NOT GIVEN
Questions 25-27
Complete the following using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
25. Main problem in the production of synthetic fibres: (25) __________
- pollution
- petroleum products
- organic solvents
26. 3 disadvantages of natural fibres: (26) __________
- poor wash-wear performance
- stretching, wrinkling, shrinkage
- not versatile
27. Proportion of clothing made from natural fibre: (27) __________
- 60 per cent
- less than 60%
- more than 60%
Reading Passage 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40 which are based on this passage.
Map wars
A map of the world expresses a point of view. A correct model of the earth is a sphere - or an ellipsoid to be precise. Photographs of the earth from space provide comforting reassurance on that point. If you wish to know the relative positions of the continents and the oceans you should go out and buy yourself a globe and spin it around.
But a globe cannot be pinned to a wall or printed in a book. For that you need a two-dimensional representation. This is where the problems start since you cannot project three-dimensional information onto a flat plane without making certain assumptions. The arguments between cartographers mostly concern what those assumptions should be.
The simplest two-dimensional representation is a 'cylindrical' projection - what you get by wrapping a sheet of paper around a globe and simply transferring the information across. This means it indicates true north and south. So, Newfoundland is directly north of Venezuela and it appears that way on the map. East and west similarly are also indicated correctly. Such a map demonstrates what is called 'fidelity of axis'.
One of the longest-lived cylindrical projections was based on the needs of sixteenth century navigators. Gerhard Kremer, a Flemish mathematician, produced his view of the world in 1569. 'Kremer' translates to 'merchant' in English and 'mercator' in Latin. And the Mercator projection survives to this day in many books and maps.
Mercator's projection of the world also shows intermediate compass directions like north-west more or less accurately. So, it is possible to conclude from his map that Brazil is south-west of Liberia and if you plot a course in that direction you will eventually arrive at your destination. No wonder it was appreciated by the early explorers! If it can be used in this way a map is said to have 'fidelity of angle'.
But fidelity of angle is only achieved at a cost. To make it work, the further away you get from the equator, the further apart you have to move the horizontal lines of latitude. As these distances increase so do the sizes of the countries underneath them. So, by the time you get to the North or South Poles the lines would be drawn infinitely far apart and the Arctic and Antarctic regions can scarcely be represented at all since they would be infinitely large. More importantly the relative sizes of intermediate areas are completely distorted; South America seems smaller than Europe whereas in fact it is twice the size. These changes in scale distort both the size and shape of countries. Given such defects, it is surprising that the Mercator projection has survived so long, especially as dozens of other more satisfactory projections have appeared since. One of the best known of these is the Aitoff projection of 1889, which attempted to represent country sizes and shapes more correctly. But to do so required a compromise - the lines of latitude and longitude had to be 'bent'. Fidelity of axis had thus been lost and you could no longer judge north, south, east and west so easily. Most of us, however, did not notice that these projections were different from Mercator. We assumed that all maps were simply factual statements.
Dr. Arno Peters, a German historian, was irritated by the maps he saw widely published, particularly by the survival of Mercator which he argued, gave a euro-centric view of the world. It shrank the developing countries since most of these are around the equator, and it expanded the richer countries since they lay further north. Even the equator itself is shown two thirds of the way down on the traditional Mercator map. Dr. Peters insisted that his map, which first appeared in 1985, has equal-area projection so that no country is given prominence over another, plus fidelity of axis to avoid the disorientating effect of bent lines of latitude and longitude.
Then there is the question of country shape. If you were to take a photo of a globe in its normal position you would find the countries around the equator like Zaire or Ecuador came out of it pretty well. They would be shown relatively large and with something close to their correct shape. But further north or south there are considerable distortions: Australia tails away alarmingly. Dr. Peters decided that the minimum distortions should occur not at the equator but at the 45 degree lines of latitude, as these are much more populated areas. However, this controversial Peters map does radically change the shape of both Africa and South America; and although all projections distort to some extent, it is clear that Africa appears exceptionally long and thin on the Peters map.
But the oddity of the Peters projection is at least partly responsible for its success, as there has been widespread discussion on the misrepresentation of country sizes in previous maps. The issues which the Peters map raises are relatively simple. If you decide you want an equal area map with fidelity of axis you will always get something resembling the Peters projection. If you decide that shape is more significant you will get something else.
The real value of the Peters projection is that it has made the world think about something that before was never taken seriously: that maps of the world represent a point of view just as do press articles or TV programmes or photographs. But it isn't recommended that you navigate a '747' round the world with the Peters projection or with any other single global projection they would all lead you astray!
Questions 28-31
Complete the summary. Choose your answers from the box below.
axis, estimate, perspective, map, direction, compare, size, judge, accurately, angle, distances, models, projection, change
...each method of (28) __________ involves a compromise. Mercator’s projection indicates true north and south, known as fidelity of (29) __________, but misrepresents the relative size of countries. Other cartographers rounded the lines of latitude. Dr. Peters felt that such maps presented a first-world (30) __________. His map enables us to (31) __________ the size of one country with another.
Question 28:
- axis
- estimate
- perspective
- map
- direction
- compare
- size
- judge
- accurately
- angle
- distances
- models
- projection
- change
Question 29:
- axis
- estimate
- perspective
- map
- direction
- compare
- size
- judge
- accurately
- angle
- distances
- models
- projection
- change
Question 30:
- axis
- estimate
- perspective
- map
- direction
- compare
- size
- judge
- accurately
- angle
- distances
- models
- projection
- change
Question 31:
- axis
- estimate
- perspective
- map
- direction
- compare
- size
- judge
- accurately
- angle
- distances
- models
- projection
- change
Questions 32-36
Match the map projections (M, A, P) with the characteristics.
M. Mercator projection
A. Aitoff projection
P. Peters projection
32. makes Europe seem larger than it is
- M
- A
- P
33. maximum distortions at the poles
- M
- A
- P
34. maintains greatest accuracy at 45 degrees latitude
- M
- A
- P
35. most distorts the position of the equator
- M
- A
- P
36. more accurately represents country shapes and sizes
- M
- A
- P
Questions 37-39
Choose one drawing (A-D) to match each projection type.




37. Mercator projection
- A
- B
- C
- D
38. Aitoff projection
- A
- B
- C
- D
39. Peters projection
- A
- B
- C
- D
Question 40
Choose the correct letter A-D.
The main point made by the writer of this article is that we need to...
- understand maps.
- understand map-making.
- understand that maps are not objective.
- understand the importance of latitude and longitude.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 3.0 - 4.5: Cần luyện tập thêm. Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố kỹ năng đọc lướt (skimming) để nắm ý chính và đọc quét (scanning) để tìm thông tin chi tiết.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 5.0 - 6.5: Khá tốt! Bạn có khả năng đọc hiểu tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc phân tích các dạng câu hỏi phức tạp và quản lý thời gian hiệu quả hơn giữa các đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 7.0+: Xuất sắc! Chúc mừng! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích thông tin rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
READING PASSAGE 1
Read the text below and answer Questions 1-13.
3D Printers
Ever wished you could find a pair of shoes to match your outfit? Fancy a pizza but don’t want to go out or wait for your delivery service to arrive? Simple. All you need is a 3D home printer. Whilst admittedly not yet mainstream technology, it is only a matter of time until the 3D printer becomes as much a part of the domestic furniture as the statutory TV or the washing machine. Currently, however, the technology remains firmly in the province of geeks and gadget lovers.
The design of the 3D home printer is nevertheless refreshingly simple. Its components are relatively few, and could theoretically be assembled by anyone with a rudimentary knowledge of mechanics and technological know-how. The 3 main elements of the printer are a metal framework which contains the mechanical part of the printer, a printer control board and a PC. The PC is connected via USB to the printer control board, which in turn is connected to the framework of the printer and attached to the side of the latter. A plastic filament of around 3m m in diameter feeds into the printer from an external source, connecting to the extruder motor inside the printer. During printing, the controlled movement of the extruder motor ensures the correct volume of plastic is used. The extruder motor in turn is connected to a heated extruder or 'hot end' that heats the plastic filament during printing. As the heated plastic emerges or is 'extruded' to use the correct terminology, it cools and is arranged in layers to create a solid 3D model.
In order to move the extruder about in 3D space, there are 3 axes, each controlled by motors. The X-axis motor, located in a midway position on the metal framework of the printer, moves the extruder left and right, using a pulley. The two Z-axis motors, which are located on either side of the heated printing bed, move the entire X-axis up and down via two threaded rods. The heated bed of the printer, which lies directly underneath the hot end of the extruder, is moved back and forth beneath the extruder by the Y-axis motor located underneath the heated bed. The bed is heated to around 70 degrees Celsius to ensure the newly laid plastic does not warp as it cools. Overall control of the printer is effected by the printer control board and the PC which contains the programme of the model that is being printed.
Once assembled, in theory it should be possible to print a 3D version of virtually anything. However, comparatively easy as it is to assemble, would-be DIY gadget enthusiasts should be warned that the printer has major technical limitations. The finished product will always have banding and surface detail remaining as evidence of how the model was laid down. In addition, operators of the printer have to be extremely careful not to knock it whilst the machine is in the process of printing, since this will end up in model distortion. Extreme care also has to be taken in the choice of plastic filament which will ultimately create the structure of the model. Some types of plastic may warp if the temperature is not controlled properly when the melted plastic leaves the nozzle, and later, when it is cooling on the bed. Obviously the 3D model will be the same colour as the plastic filament forming it, but colour limitations can easily be overcome by painting afterwards for a multicolour finish. Another problem is that the plastic structures have to be supported as they are laid down on the heated bed or they will distort or fall away as the plastic cools.
It is virtually certain, however, that such issues will be overcome in the future. The innumerable advantages of 3D printers far outweigh any disadvantages and justify time and resources spent on such technology. Firstly, the product can be produced on the spot within a very short time frame, thereby reducing time and cost of manufacturing by traditional means. Secondly, printing objects on a 3D printer removes the need for storage space of items since whatever is required is printed as and when necessary. Finally, despite expensive set-up costs, in the long run, 3D printing works out far cheaper than normal manufacturing processes since there is no longer a need for labour costs.
However, the 3D printer is still very much in its early stages and can be likened to early home computers which in technological hindsight now seem so cumbersome and slow. So far, early experimentations with the new technology have been impressive but not earth-shattering. Nevertheless, in the future that is all set to change. In fact, the potential of 3D printers is jaw-dropping. The most ambitious plan yet for 3D printing has to be in the military field. If all goes to plan, fighter planes will at some, probably very distant, point in the future carry printers on board that during flight will be capable of printing out other fighter planes to replenish the flying squad. Admittedly, it takes a quantum leap of the imagination to accept that a machine that prints out clothing and pizzas will also be able to print out planes. Sceptics, however, should remember that one of the forerunners to the modern computer, designed in the mid-twentieth century, filled an entire room, So, in theory, if we have come so far in a matter of years then who knows what the future may hold for 3D printers?
Label the diagram below. Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 1-5.

1. Z-axis motor (1) __________
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
2. hot end of extruder
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
3. extruder motor
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
4. plastic filament
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
5. X-axis motor
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
- F
- G
Complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
The Pros and Cons of 3D Printers
Cons
The finished product is far from perfect, exhibiting (6) __________ in addition to banding. In order to (7) __________ desired, extreme care has to be taken in selecting the plastic filaments to be used. It is also necessary for plastic structures (8) __________ during the printing process to avoid distorting the printed model.
Pros
Only a very (9) __________ is required to produce 3D models. 3D products are also much cheaper to make than using normal manufacturing processes and need no storage space. In theory (10) __________ of 3D printers to create virtually anything from pizza to fighter planes is astounding.
Question 6: ...exhibiting _____
- banding
- surface detail
- model distortion
Question 7: In order to _____ desired...
- overcome limitations
- paint afterwards
- create the structure
Question 8: ...plastic structures _____
- to be supported
- to be careful
- to fall away
Question 9: Only a very _____ is required...
- short time frame
- long run
- quantum leap
Question 10: In theory _____ of 3D printers...
- the technology
- the potential
- the imagination
Complete the summary below. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Whilst 3D printing is far from becoming (11) __________, so far experiments with the new technology have been promising. Although 3D models have yet to produce anything as (12) __________ as fighter planes, the foundation for such a technology is in place. For the moment, however, the realisation of such projects remains in the (13) __________ future.
Question 11: ...far from becoming _____
- mainstream technology
- domestic furniture
- a reality
Question 12: ...anything as _____ as fighter planes
- ambitious
- impressive
- cumbersome
Question 13: ...in the _____ future
- near
- distant
- very distant
READING PASSAGE 2
Read the text below and answer Questions 14-26.
Nanotechnology: its development and uses
A Nanotechnology has been hailed by many as being a twentieth-century miracle of science. Essentially, nanotechnology, a term derived from Greek, translating literally as 'dwarf technology' is, as the origin of its name suggests, engineering at the atomic level. Scientists work with particles of substances known as 'nanoparticles' which may measure no more than 1 nanometre or a billionth of a metre. That's around 40,000 times smaller than the width of the average human hair. Whilst some of these substances derived from carbon compounds are manufactured, others, such as metals, are naturally-occurring or arise as a by-product of another process e.g. volcanic ash or smoke from wood burning. What makes these substances of such scientific interest is that their minute size facilitates medical and technological processes that would otherwise be impossible.
B It may be something of a revelation for many of us to learn that nanotechnology - or its concept - is far from cutting-edge science. In fact, nanotechnology as an idea was first referred to in an influential lecture by American physicist, Richard Feynman, as far back as 1959. During the lecture, entitled 'There's Plenty of Room at the Bottom', Feynman outlined the basic concept of nanotechnology. Individual atoms and molecules, he claimed, could in the future be created by a physical process. Such a process, he envisaged, would involve the building of a set of precise tools to build and operate another proportionally smaller set. The building of increasingly minute tools at the microscopic level would in turn produce ultra-microscopic materials, later to become known as 'nanoparticles'.
C Strangely, what should have sparked a scientific revolution was then virtually forgotten about for the next 15 years. In 1974, a Japanese scientist, Norio Taniguchi, of the Tokyo University of Science reintroduced Feynman's theory and put a new name to an old concept, referring to the science as 'nanotechnology'. However, it wasn't until nearly a decade later, in the 1980s, that the way was paved for nanotechnology to leave the realm of theoretical science and become reality. Two major scientific developments within a relatively short period were to enable practical application of nanotechnology. The invention of the Scanning Tunnelling Microscope (STM), combined with the discovery of nano-sized particles termed 'fullerenes', were to prove a turning point in nanotechnology.
D Fullerenes are derived from carbon molecules and, in common with other nanoparticles, possess chemical and physical properties that are of huge scientific interest. The potential value of fullerenes for medical science was first raised in 2003 and in 2005 when the scientific magazine 'Chemistry and Biology' ran an article describing the use of fullerenes as light-activated antimicrobial agents. Since then, fullerenes have been used for several biomedical applications ranging from X-ray imaging to treating cancer by targeting cancer cells. In addition, these nanoparticles have been used in the manufacture of commercial products, from sunscreen to cosmetics and some food products. Furthermore, nanoparticles of metals, like gold and silver, have been used in environmental clean-ups of oil slicks and other forms of pollution. The remarkable properties of nanoparticles are down to two main factors: their greater surface-to-weight ratio, compared to larger particles which promotes the attachment of substances to their surface, and their minute size which allows them to penetrate cell membranes. These properties are of great benefit, for example in medicine, as drugs to fight cancer or AIDS can be attached to nanoparticles to reach their target cell in the human body.
E However, despite the amazing properties attributed to nanoparticles such as fullerenes, nanotechnology has yet to win wider universal acceptance in scientific circles. For the very properties that make nanoparticles so valuable to technology and medical science are also the ones that make them potentially so toxic. Such properties are potentially lethal if toxic substances attach themselves to the same nanoparticles, thereby delivering a fatal toxin through the cell membranes into the cells themselves. The toxic effect of these compounds is further increased, since their size permits them to enter the bloodstream and hence the body's major organs. Furthermore, the nanoparticles in themselves are essentially a foreign element being introduced to the body. Unlike foreign elements, such as bacteria, the body has no natural immune system to deal with these ultramicroscopic particles. Scientists have yet to convince the nanotechnology sceptics that the potential side effects of nanoparticles are more than compensated for by the advantages that they confer. It may be, however, that opposition to this technology is no more than a general distrust of scientific innovation. In fact, Urban Wiesing from the University of Tubingen has been quoted as saying 'Many of the risks associated with nanotechnology have at least been encountered in part in other technologies as well.' He also believes that regulations can be put in place to minimise such risks. This is a view echoed by the Federal Environment Agency that proposes that such risks are vastly outweighed by the potential benefits of nanotechnology, in particular for the environment.
The text has five paragraphs, A-E. Which paragraph contains the following information?
14. promising beginnings
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
15. definition of a revolutionary technology
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
16. repackaging an old idea
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
17. dubious attributes
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
18. the foundation of a new technology
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
19. Nanotechnology...
- has limited value.
- is not related to science.
- incites controversy.
- poses insurmountable safety issues.
20. In the beginning, nanotechnology was...
- overlooked as a science.
- considered to be irrelevant.
- highly unpopular.
- regarded as being revolutionary.
21. Nanoparticles are a product of...
- manufacturing processes alone.
- natural and manufactured processes.
- purely biological processes.
- environmental factors alone.
22. Nanotechnology remained a purely theoretical science until...
- other technologies caught up with it.
- scientists understood its practical applications.
- Taniguchi convinced other scientists of its value.
- a scientist invented a new technology.
23. Safety concerns about nanotechnology are...
- completely unfounded.
- exaggerated by its detractors.
- real but manageable.
- misunderstood.
Complete the sentences. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
A major (24) __________ in nanotechnology came with the discovery of fullerenes and the invention of the Scanning Tunnelling Microscope.
Amongst scientists, nanotechnology has not met with (25) __________.
The ability of nanoparticles to penetrate (26) __________ is somewhat of a mixed blessing.
Question 24: A major _____
- scientific revolution
- turning point
- scientific development
Question 25: ...has not met with _____
- universal acceptance
- general distrust
- wider acceptance
Question 26: ...penetrate _____
- the bloodstream
- cell membranes
- major organs
READING PASSAGE 3
Read the text below and answer Questions 27-40.
Driverless cars
Driverless cars may be set to become reality. At least that is, if the executives behind the taxi app, Uber, are to be believed. Currently, Uber is taking its biggest steps yet towards a driver-free world, launching the Uber Advanced Technologies Centre in Pittsburgh. The ultimate goal of this institution is to 'do research and development, primarily in the areas of mapping and vehicle safety and autonomy technology'.
To date, Uber has provided a chauffeur-driven taxi service for American clients. Venturing into the realms of driverless cars is therefore a new direction which will require massive investment. It is indeed a huge leap of faith on Uber's part, since technology has yet to catch up with the idea of a fully autonomous vehicle. On the as well as stay in lane, and maintain a steady cruising seed. In a patchwork fashion such cars could eventually build up to almost full automation and Uber believes that car owners will readily embrace the idea of driverless taxis. In Uber's eyes, current car owners only stand to gain by the introduction of such technology. Hiring a driverless cab means that the client does not have to pay for the cost of the driver in the cab fee. The only cost incurred by clients is for fuel, plus wear and tear. It is certainly an attractive proposition. Uber stands to benefit, too, since employees currently working as taxi drivers will be removed from the company's payroll. Apparently for car drivers and Uber, it is a win-win situation.
Not everyone will benefit however from this technology, the car industry being an obvious example. Not surprisingly, the industry views the concept of self-driving cars with a sense of growing alarm. Such technology could well prove the death knell for private car ownership. As a result, the industry is dragging its feet over the manufacture and introduction of fully automated vehicles onto the market, due to commercial issues.
The commercial aspect apart, there is also the safety issue. Whilst a fully automated car could respond to most eventualities in the course of a trip, would it be capable of responding to unforeseen events, such as changes in route or unexpected diversions? Evidently legislative authorities are also of this opinion. Currently, no matter how much automation a car has, it still requires a driver with a full licence behind the wheel to drive on public roads. Whilst robot drivers, on the whole, have the upper hand on their human counterparts safety-wise, that still does not guarantee that they will become legal. As a consortium of researchers put it, 'I self-driving cars cut the roughly 40,000 annual US traffic fatalities in half, the car makers might get not 20,000 thank-you notes, but 20,000 lawsuits.'
Interestingly, Uber are now undertaking an aggressive hiring campaign for taxi drivers to meet the demand for their taxi app. It seems that even Uber is less than confident that driverless taxis will soon become a reality. Whether Uber is backing a doomed campaign or instead is about to bring in a technology that will be universally greeted with positivity and acceptance depends entirely on your viewpoint.
John Reynolds, a Pittsburgh taxi driver, is angry at Uber's attitude on fully automated technology. 'They are completely disregarding individual livelihoods, such as mine, as well as those of big car manufacturers in the pursuit of money. Admittedly things change and we have to roll with the times, but there should be some safeguards in place to protect those potentially affected by the introduction of new technologies. I guess I'm biased, being a taxi driver myself, but it's difficult to see it objectively.'
Susie Greenacre, a resident of Pittsburgh, has no such reservations about driverless cars. 'I'm all for it. Driverless cars have my backing, any day! I hate the stress of rush-hour traffic| I think if I could just hop in a driverless car which would take me anywhere I wanted I would never want to drive again!'
Jason Steiner, a school teacher in a Pittsburgh secondary school, is inclined to agree with Susie. 'Whilst I'm not averse to driving, I would swap the stressful daily commute by car to a driverless one if I had the chance! It just takes the pressure off driving. I would be slightly wary though, of completely dependent on a robot-driven car when it comes to having to react to unexpected obstacles in the road.'
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
27. Which of the following statements is accurate?
- Driverless cars conform to safety regulations.
- There is an obvious market for fully automated cars.
- Human drivers are no competition for driverless cars.
- Potentially, automated taxis are more cost-effective.
28. Uber is investing in a technology that...
- will prove controversial.
- has been tried and tested.
- is unlikely to prove cost-effective.
- will be universally welcomed.
29. What is NOT true about driverless cars?
- They have become a reality in many countries.
- They may improve road safety.
- They will reduce the cost of travelling.
- They will endanger jobs.
30. What can be said about current legislation?
- It is in favour of driverless cars.
- It currently doesn't favour fully automated cars.
- It is keeping up with technology.
- It already accommodates driverless cars.
31. What is the general view held by car manufacturers?
- Driverless cars are more dangerous.
- Fully automated cars are too expensive to make.
- Driverless cars will threaten their livelihoods.
- Technology is still too underdeveloped.
32. What is the writer's opinion of driverless cars?
- He is sceptical that they will be developed.
- He reserves judgement on their future reality.
- He believes they will never become a reality.
- He is critical of Uber's plans.
Match each statement to the correct person, A-C.
A. John Reynolds
B. Susie Greenacre
C. Jason Steiner
33. This person is willing to give up control of their vehicle...
- A
- B
- C
34. This person would have no regrets about giving up driving entirely...
- A
- B
- C
35. This person is aware of the limitations of driverless cars.
- A
- B
- C
36. This person believes that those affected adversely should be protected.
- A
- B
- C
37. This person enjoys driving but only under favourable conditions.
- A
- B
- C
Do the following statements agree with the information in the text?
38. Driverless technology will have to overcome legal and safety obstacles to become viable.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
39. Uber has shown complete self-conviction in its investment in driverless cars.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
40. The safety issues are likely to be resolved fairly quickly.
- TRUE
- FALSE
- NOT GIVEN
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 3.0 - 4.5: Cần luyện tập thêm. Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố kỹ năng đọc lướt (skimming) để nắm ý chính và đọc quét (scanning) để tìm thông tin chi tiết.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 5.0 - 6.5: Khá tốt! Bạn có khả năng đọc hiểu tốt. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc phân tích các dạng câu hỏi phức tạp và quản lý thời gian hiệu quả hơn giữa các đoạn văn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/40
Band 7.0+: Xuất sắc! Chúc mừng! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng đọc hiểu và phân tích thông tin rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.
Listen to the audio and answer questions 1-41.
The housing officer takes some details from the girl.
Complete the following form with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
PERSONAL DETAILS FOR HOMESTAY APPLICATION
| First name | (1) __________ |
| Family name | Yuichini |
| Gender | Female |
| Age | 28 |
| Passport number | (2) __________ |
| Nationality | Japanese |
| Course enrolled | (3) __________ |
| Length of the course | (4) __________ |
| Homestay time | (5) __________ |
Question 1: First name
- Keiko
- Kaiko
- Keyko
Question 2: Passport number
- J06337
- JO6337
- J0G337
Question 3: Course enrolled
- Advanced English speaking
- General English studies
- Advanced English studies
Question 4: Length of the course
- 4 months
- 5 months
- 6 months
Question 5: Homestay time
- About 4 months
- About 5 months
- About 3 months
Mark TWO letters that represent the correct answer.
Which kind of family does the girl prefer?
Question 6: First preference
- A big family with many young children
- A family without smokers or drinkers
- A family without any pets
- A family with many animals or pets
Question 7: Second preference
- A big family with many young children
- A family without smokers or drinkers
- A family without any pets
- A family with many animals or pets
Fill in the blanks with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
8. Although the girl is not a vegetarian, she doesn't eat a lot of meat. Her favourite food is (8) __________
9. The girl has given up playing handball. Now, she just plays (9) __________ with her friends at weekends.
10. The girl does not like the bus because they are always late. She would rather (10) __________
11. The girl can get the information about the homestay family that she wants (11) __________
Question 8: Her favourite food is _____
- Fast food
- Seafood
- Vegetables
Question 9: Now, she just plays _____
- Tennis
- Football
- Badminton
Question 10: She would rather _____
- Walk
- Take a taxi
- Take the train
Question 11: ...that she wants _____
- Tomorrow morning
- This afternoon
- Next week
Complete the notes by filling in the blanks with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
VISAS
Normal visas last (12) __________.
You need to pay (13) __________ for the visa.
Some Enzian consulates require you to provide a letter to (14) __________.
You can get information of major embassies on (15) __________ of the student handbook.
SOME MISCELLANEOUS GENERAL ADVICE
If you carry a lot of money, you need to complete a (16) __________.
Remember to declare all your items on a (17) __________.
The health certificate you need is the (18) __________.
NOTES FOR STUDENTS
To get a youth fare card, show your (19) __________.
Take at least (20) __________ passport photos.
CURRENCY
Take Yen or (21) __________ with you.
Question 12: Normal visas last _____
- 60 days
- 90 days
- 30 days
Question 13: You need to pay _____
- 30 pounds
- 40 pounds
- 50 pounds
Question 14: ...provide a letter to _____
- Confirm your nationality
- Confirm your address
- Confirm your age
Question 15: ...on _____ of the student handbook
- Page 12
- Page 30
- Page 13
Question 16: ...complete a _____
- Customs form
- Currency form
- Declaration form
Question 17: ...on a _____
- Tourist export form
- Tourist import form
- Travel document form
Question 18: ...the _____
- BM726
- BM276
- BM672
Question 19: ...show your _____
- Passport
- International student card
- Student visa
Question 20: ...take at least _____
- 10
- 15
- 12
Question 21: ...Yen or _____
- Australian dollar
- US dollar
- Canadian dollar
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Her occupation is (22) __________.
She usually spends about (23) __________.
She often goes to (24) __________.
Her most difficult thing to buy is (25) __________.
Question 22: Her occupation is _____
- Manager
- Cashier
- Accountant
Question 23: She usually spends about _____
- £40
- £50
- £60
Question 24: She often goes to _____
- Big department stores
- Local markets
- Small boutiques
Question 25: Her most difficult thing to buy is _____
- Shoes
- Shirts
- Jeans
Fill in the blanks with ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Question 26: 50% of the people spend _____ a month.
- 45 pounds
- 50 pounds
- 40 pounds
Question 27: 15% of the people spend _____ a month.
- 65 pounds
- 75 pounds
- 85 pounds
Question 28: 35% of the people spend _____ a month.
- 25 pounds
- 30 pounds
- 20 pounds
Mark THREE letters that represent the correct answer.
Most of the people being interviewed think that _________ is/are most difficult to buy.
Question 29: First difficult item
- Books
- Study materials
- Foods
- Trousers
- Shoes
- Sportswear
Question 30: Second difficult item
- Books
- Study materials
- Foods
- Trousers
- Shoes
- Sportswear
Question 31: Third difficult item
- Books
- Study materials
- Foods
- Trousers
- Shoes
- Sportswear
Question 32
What does the lecturer provide for those who are interested in doing extra reading?
- Personal consultation sessions.
- Extra materials, such as a booklist.
- Mid-term examination.
- Free glasses.
Question 33
In the past, time management meant you needed to
- reduce your stress.
- plan for every hour of the week.
- own a good watch.
- set goals and try to achieve these goals.
Question 34
Today, wise time management means you need to
- set goals and work in a systematic way.
- work faster.
- set an overview of your assignment.
- make a list, plan for everything and try to stick to this plan.
Question 35
In this college, students are assigned ___________ at the end of each semester.
- team projects.
- final term examinations.
- essays.
- time management courses.
Question 36
One sign the lecturer mentions that students feel under pressure is
- library books go missing.
- students get angry for no reason.
- lower class attendance rates.
- trouble at the library.
Question 37
What kind of suggestion does the lecturer give to the students?
- Making a very detailed plan of their daily activities.
- Not being so stressed just because there is an assignment.
- A regular one-hour session in their personal timetables.
- Wearing comfortable shoes.
Question 38
According to the lecturer, there are three kinds of planners. They are:
- one weekly planner, one daily planner and one hour planner.
- one yearly planner, one weekly planner and one daily planner.
- one term planner, one monthly planner and one weekly planner.
- one term planner, one weekly and one daily planner.
Question 39
If you want to set an overview of your time, you should need at least
- one week.
- half a week.
- one month.
- one term.
Question 40
The daily planner of time is mainly concerned with
- the detailed planning.
- how to plan all available time.
- TV schedules.
- an overview of everything you need to do for several days.
Question 41
According to the lecturer, wise time management may have the following benefit:
- having more time to spend on relaxation and other activities.
- improving your performance in the final term assignment.
- helping you write better essays.
- improving your memory.
Kết quả: [[score]]/41
Band 3.0 - 4.5: Điểm số của bạn cho thấy cần củng cố lại các kỹ năng nghe cơ bản. Hãy tập trung nghe các đoạn hội thoại ngắn, làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi và luyện tập thường xuyên để cải thiện.
Kết quả: [[score]]/41
Band 5.0 - 6.5: Khá tốt! Bạn có khả năng nghe hiểu ổn định. Để đạt điểm cao hơn, hãy tập trung vào việc nhận biết các thông tin gây nhiễu và luyện tập nghe các bài nói dài hơn với tốc độ nhanh hơn.
Kết quả: [[score]]/41
Band 7.0+: Xuất sắc! Bạn sở hữu kỹ năng nghe hiểu rất ấn tượng. Hãy tiếp tục duy trì phong độ này bằng cách nghe các nguồn tài liệu đa dạng như tin tức, podcast để chinh phục các mục tiêu cao hơn.